HESI RN
Maternity HESI 2023 Quizlet
1. A newborn's parents tell the nurse that their baby is already trying to walk. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Encourage the parents to report this to the healthcare provider.
- B. Acknowledge the parents' observation.
- C. Schedule the newborn for further neurological testing.
- D. Explain the newborn’s normal stepping reflex.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When parents report that their newborn is trying to walk, the nurse should understand that newborns exhibit a stepping reflex, which is a normal developmental response. Explaining this reflex to the parents helps them understand that it is a typical behavior seen in newborns rather than true attempts to walk. Encouraging the parents to report this to the healthcare provider (Choice A) may cause unnecessary concern since the stepping reflex is a normal part of newborn development. Acknowledging the parents' observation (Choice B) is a good communication strategy but providing education on the normal reflex is essential. Scheduling the newborn for further neurological testing (Choice C) is not indicated in this scenario as the stepping reflex is a typical finding in newborns.
2. In planning care for a client at 30-weeks gestation experiencing preterm labor, what maternal prescription is most important in preventing this fetus from developing respiratory syndrome?
- A. Betamethasone (Celestone) 12mg deep IM.
- B. Butorphanol 1mg IV push q2h PRN pain.
- C. Ampicillin 1g IV push q8h.
- D. Terbutaline (Brethine) 0.25mg subcutaneously q15 minutes x3.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The administration of Betamethasone (Celestone) is crucial in cases of preterm labor to promote fetal lung maturation and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn. Betamethasone helps enhance the production of surfactant in the fetal lungs, improving their functionality and decreasing the likelihood of respiratory complications upon birth. Butorphanol is an analgesic and not indicated for preventing respiratory syndrome in preterm infants. Ampicillin is an antibiotic used for infection prevention and treatment, not for fetal lung maturation. Terbutaline is a tocolytic agent used to inhibit contractions, but it does not have a direct effect on fetal lung maturity.
3. A woman who gave birth 48 hours ago is bottle-feeding her infant. During assessment, the nurse determines that both breasts are swollen, warm, and tender upon palpation. What action should the LPN/LVN take?
- A. Apply cold compresses to both breasts for comfort.
- B. Instruct the client to run warm water on her breasts.
- C. Wear a loose-fitting bra to prevent nipple irritation.
- D. Express small amounts of milk to relieve pressure.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After childbirth, engorgement of the breasts can occur, leading to swelling and discomfort. Applying cold compresses helps reduce swelling and provides comfort for engorged breasts. This action can also help with pain relief and promote milk flow regulation. Instructing the client to run warm water on her breasts (Choice B) is incorrect as warm water can increase blood flow and exacerbate swelling. Wearing a loose-fitting bra (Choice C) may provide some comfort, but it does not address the swelling effectively. Expressing small amounts of milk (Choice D) may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue of engorgement.
4. A client at 32 weeks gestation is hospitalized with severe pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and magnesium sulfate is prescribed to control the symptoms. Which assessment finding indicates the therapeutic drug level has been achieved?
- A. 4+ reflexes
- B. Urinary output of 50 ml per hour
- C. A decrease in respiratory rate from 24 to 16
- D. A decreased body temperature
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A decrease in respiratory rate from 24 to 16 indicates that magnesium sulfate is effectively reducing central nervous system irritability, a desired therapeutic effect. This decrease in respiratory rate signifies that the drug has reached a therapeutic level to control symptoms of severe pregnancy-induced hypertension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because 4+ reflexes, urinary output, and body temperature are not direct indicators of achieving a therapeutic level of magnesium sulfate for controlling PIH symptoms.
5. A community health nurse visits a family in which a 16-year-old unmarried daughter is pregnant with her first child and is at 32-weeks gestation. The client tells the nurse that she has been having intermittent back pain since the night before. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Ask the client’s mother to call an ambulance for transport to the hospital immediately.
- B. Determine what physical activities the client has performed for the past 24 hours.
- C. Teach the client how to perform pelvic rock exercises and observe for correct feedback.
- D. Ask the client if she has experienced any recent changes in vaginal discharge.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority nursing intervention in this situation is to ask the client if she has experienced any recent changes in vaginal discharge. Changes in vaginal discharge can indicate preterm labor, making it crucial to assess promptly. This information will help determine if the client needs immediate medical attention and appropriate interventions to prevent preterm birth and ensure the well-being of the mother and the baby. Option A is not the priority as back pain alone does not warrant immediate ambulance transport. Option B is less relevant in this context as the focus should be on immediate concerns related to pregnancy. Option C is not the priority as addressing back pain should come after ruling out urgent pregnancy-related issues.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access