Nursing Elites

1. A two-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine the pulse deficit
• B. Administer the scheduled dose
• C. Calculate the safe dose range
• D. Review the serum digoxin level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer the scheduled dose of digoxin. A heart rate of 128 bpm in a two-year-old child with heart failure falls within the safe range for digoxin administration. It indicates that the child's heart rate is not excessively low, which could be a concern for administering digoxin. Therefore, proceeding with the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario. Determining the pulse deficit (Choice A) is not necessary in this situation as the heart rate is already obtained. Calculating the safe dose range (Choice C) is not required as the heart rate is within the safe range. Reviewing the serum digoxin level (Choice D) is not needed at this point since the heart rate indicates that administering the next dose is appropriate.

2. A community health nurse visits a family in which a 16-year-old unmarried daughter is pregnant with her first child and is at 32-weeks gestation. The client tells the nurse that she has been having intermittent back pain since the night before. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Ask the client’s mother to call an ambulance for transport to the hospital immediately.
• B. Determine what physical activities the client has performed for the past 24 hours.
• C. Teach the client how to perform pelvic rock exercises and observe for correct feedback.
• D. Ask the client if she has experienced any recent changes in vaginal discharge.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention in this situation is to ask the client if she has experienced any recent changes in vaginal discharge. Changes in vaginal discharge can indicate preterm labor, making it crucial to assess promptly. This information will help determine if the client needs immediate medical attention and appropriate interventions to prevent preterm birth and ensure the well-being of the mother and the baby. Option A is not the priority as back pain alone does not warrant immediate ambulance transport. Option B is less relevant in this context as the focus should be on immediate concerns related to pregnancy. Option C is not the priority as addressing back pain should come after ruling out urgent pregnancy-related issues.

3. The client at 10 weeks' gestation is palpated with the fundus at 3 fingerbreadths above the pubic symphysis. The client reports nausea, vomiting, and scant dark brown vaginal discharge. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Collect a urine sample for urinalysis.
• B. Measure vital signs.
• C. Recommend bed rest.
• D. Obtain human chorionic gonadotropin levels.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a pregnant client with a fundal height greater than expected at 10 weeks and experiencing scant dark brown vaginal discharge, there is a concern for a molar pregnancy. Assessing human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels is crucial in this situation to confirm or rule out this condition.

4. A pregnant woman in the first trimester of pregnancy has hemoglobin of 8.6 g/dl and a hematocrit of 25.1%. What food should the nurse encourage this client to include in her diet?

• A. Carrots
• B. Chicken
• C. Yogurt
• D. Cheese

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During pregnancy, it is common for women to experience a drop in hemoglobin levels, leading to anemia. Chicken is a good dietary source of iron, which is essential for increasing hemoglobin levels. Iron from animal sources, such as chicken, is more readily absorbed by the body compared to plant-based sources. Therefore, encouraging the client to include chicken in her diet can help improve her hemoglobin levels and combat anemia.

5. During a well-child visit for their child, one of the parents with an autosomal dominant disorder tells the nurse, 'We don’t plan on having any more children, since the next child is likely to inherit this disorder.' How should the nurse respond?

• A. Explain that the risk of inheriting the disorder decreases by 50% with each child the couple has.
• B. Acknowledge that the next child will inherit the disorder since the first child did not.
• C. Encourage the couple to reconsider their decision since the inheritance pattern may be sex-linked.
• D. Confirm that there is a 50% chance of their future children inheriting the disorder.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Confirming that there is a 50% chance of their future children inheriting the disorder is the correct response in this situation. Autosomal dominant disorders have a 50% chance of being passed on to each child. Providing accurate genetic counseling is essential to help the parents make informed decisions about family planning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate because the risk of inheriting an autosomal dominant disorder remains at 50% for each child regardless of the number of children the couple has. Choice B is not appropriate as it does not provide helpful information or support to the parents. Choice C is misleading because autosomal dominant disorders follow a specific inheritance pattern and are not sex-linked.

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