Nursing Elites

1. A two-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine the pulse deficit
• B. Administer the scheduled dose
• C. Calculate the safe dose range
• D. Review the serum digoxin level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer the scheduled dose of digoxin. A heart rate of 128 bpm in a two-year-old child with heart failure falls within the safe range for digoxin administration. It indicates that the child's heart rate is not excessively low, which could be a concern for administering digoxin. Therefore, proceeding with the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario. Determining the pulse deficit (Choice A) is not necessary in this situation as the heart rate is already obtained. Calculating the safe dose range (Choice C) is not required as the heart rate is within the safe range. Reviewing the serum digoxin level (Choice D) is not needed at this point since the heart rate indicates that administering the next dose is appropriate.

2. A woman who delivered a 9-pound baby via cesarean section under spinal anesthesia is recovering in the post-anesthesia care unit. Her fundus is firm at the umbilicus, and a continuous trickle of bright red blood with no clots is observed by the nurse. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Assess her blood pressure.
• B. Apply an ice pack to the perineum.
• C. Allow the infant to breastfeed.
• D. Massage the fundus vigorously.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, continuous bleeding despite a firm fundus suggests a possible laceration. The appropriate action for the nurse to take is to assess the woman's blood pressure. This helps determine the severity of blood loss and guides further interventions, such as identifying the need for additional assessments or interventions to control bleeding. Applying an ice pack to the perineum (choice B) would not address the ongoing bleeding issue. Allowing the infant to breastfeed (choice C) may not be safe if there is significant bleeding. Massaging the fundus vigorously (choice D) is contraindicated when there is continuous bleeding as it can worsen the bleeding or cause further harm.

3. At 20 weeks gestation, a client is scheduled for an ultrasound. In preparing the client for the procedure, the nurse should explain that the primary reason for conducting this diagnostic study is to obtain which information?

• A. Sex and size of the fetus.
• B. Chromosomal abnormalities.
• C. Fetal growth and gestational age.
• D. Lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary reason for an ultrasound at 20 weeks gestation is to assess fetal growth, gestational age, and anatomical development. This evaluation helps ensure the fetus is developing appropriately and can detect any potential issues that may require intervention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because at 20 weeks, the primary focus of the ultrasound is not to determine the sex of the fetus, detect chromosomal abnormalities, or assess the lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio. While these factors may be evaluated in pregnancy, they are not the primary reasons for an ultrasound at 20 weeks gestation.

4. A client receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) to augment early labor. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain each time the infusion rate is increased?

• A. Pain level
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Infusion site
• D. Contraction pattern

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is receiving oxytocin to augment labor, the most crucial assessment for the nurse to obtain each time the infusion rate is increased is monitoring the contraction pattern. Increasing the infusion rate of oxytocin can lead to stronger and more frequent contractions, which can have implications for both the mother and the baby. Monitoring the contraction pattern helps ensure the safe administration of oxytocin and allows for timely interventions if needed.

5. When performing the daily head-to-toe assessment of a 1-day-old newborn, the nurse observes a yellow tint to the skin on the forehead, sternum, and abdomen. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Measure bilirubin levels using transcutaneous bilirubinometry.
• B. Evaluate cord blood Coombs test results.
• C. Review maternal medical records for blood type and Rh factor.
• D. Prepare the newborn for phototherapy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presence of a yellow tint on the skin of a newborn suggests jaundice. The initial step in managing jaundice in a newborn is to measure bilirubin levels, typically done using transcutaneous bilirubinometry. This measurement helps determine the severity of jaundice and guides appropriate treatment interventions. Evaluating cord blood Coombs test results or reviewing maternal medical records for blood type and Rh factor are not the immediate actions indicated when jaundice is suspected. Phototherapy may be considered after confirming elevated bilirubin levels and assessing the need for treatment.

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