Nursing Elites

1. A young woman who underwent a liver transplant one year ago tells the clinic nurse that she would like to start a family. How should the nurse intervene?

• A. Provide information about the high-risk nature of her pregnancy.
• B. Gently remind the client that anti-rejection drugs can cause sterility.
• C. Explain the benefits of waiting for a five-year post-transplant period.
• D. Determine if the client is considering options for adopting a child.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Post-liver transplant pregnancy is high-risk due to potential complications associated with immunosuppressive therapy and the transplanted organ's health. Providing information about the risks involved allows the client to make an informed decision regarding family planning.

2. Twenty-four hours after admission to the newborn nursery, a full-term male infant develops localized edema on the right side of his head. The LPN/LVN knows that, in the newborn, an accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull which does not cross the suture line is a newborn variation known as

• A. a cephalhematoma, caused by birth trauma and may last up to 8 weeks.
• B. a subarachnoid hematoma, which requires immediate drainage to prevent further complications.
• C. molding, caused by pressure during labor and will disappear within 2 to 3 days.
• D. a subdural hematoma, which can result in lifelong damage.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cephalhematoma is the accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull, often due to birth trauma, and typically resolves within weeks. It is a common finding in newborns and is not usually a cause for concern as it gradually resolves without specific treatment. Subarachnoid hematoma and subdural hematoma are different conditions that present with distinct characteristics and require different management strategies. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Subarachnoid hematoma is typically found in the subarachnoid space and requires immediate intervention, not just observation like cephalhematoma. Molding refers to the shaping of the fetal head during passage through the birth canal and is a temporary change, not a collection of blood like in cephalhematoma. Subdural hematoma is located beneath the dura mater and is associated with significant complications, unlike the self-limiting nature of cephalhematoma.

3. A primipara has delivered a stillborn fetus at 30 weeks gestation. To assist the parents in the grieving process, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Provide an opportunity for the parents to hold their infant in privacy.
• B. Assist the couple in completing a request for autopsy.
• C. Encourage the couple to seek family counseling within the next few weeks.
• D. Explain the possible causes of fetal demise.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Allowing the parents to hold their infant in privacy is crucial for facilitating the grieving process after the loss of a stillborn child. This intimate moment can help the parents create memories, bond with their baby, and start the healing process.

4. A client at 32 weeks gestation is hospitalized with severe pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and magnesium sulfate is prescribed to control the symptoms. Which assessment finding indicates the therapeutic drug level has been achieved?

• A. 4+ reflexes
• B. Urinary output of 50 ml per hour
• C. A decrease in respiratory rate from 24 to 16
• D. A decreased body temperature

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A decrease in respiratory rate from 24 to 16 indicates that magnesium sulfate is effectively reducing central nervous system irritability, a desired therapeutic effect. This decrease in respiratory rate signifies that the drug has reached a therapeutic level to control symptoms of severe pregnancy-induced hypertension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because 4+ reflexes, urinary output, and body temperature are not direct indicators of achieving a therapeutic level of magnesium sulfate for controlling PIH symptoms.

5. A postpartum client who is Rh-negative refuses to receive RhoGAM after the delivery of an infant who is Rh-positive. Which information should the nurse provide this client?

• A. RhoGAM prevents maternal antibody formation for future Rh-positive babies.
• B. RhoGAM is not necessary unless all of her pregnancies are Rh-positive.
• C. The Rh-positive factor from the fetus threatens her blood cells.
• D. The mother should receive RhoGAM when the baby is Rh-negative.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. RhoGAM is administered to Rh-negative individuals after exposure to Rh-positive blood to prevent the development of antibodies that could harm future Rh-positive babies during subsequent pregnancies. By refusing RhoGAM after the delivery of an Rh-positive infant, the mother risks developing these antibodies, which could lead to hemolytic disease in future pregnancies with Rh-positive babies. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to explain to the client that receiving RhoGAM prevents the formation of maternal antibodies against Rh-positive blood, safeguarding the health of future babies. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is incorrect because RhoGAM is necessary after exposure to Rh-positive blood, regardless of the Rh status of future pregnancies. Choice C is incorrect as it does not accurately convey the purpose of RhoGAM administration. Choice D is incorrect because RhoGAM is specifically given after exposure to Rh-positive blood, not when the baby is Rh-negative.

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