HESI RN
HESI Maternity Test Bank
1. A new mother calls the nurse stating that she wants to start feeding her 6-month-old child something besides breast milk, but is concerned that the infant is too young to start eating solid foods. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Advise the mother to wait at least another month before starting any solid foods.
- B. Instruct the mother to offer a few spoons of 2 or 3 pureed fruits at each meal.
- C. Reassure the mother that the infant is old enough to eat iron-fortified cereal.
- D. Encourage the mother to schedule a developmental assessment of the infant.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: At 6 months, infants are generally ready to start eating iron-fortified cereals as their iron stores begin to deplete. Introducing iron-fortified cereals at this age helps meet the infant's nutritional needs, particularly for iron, which becomes deficient as the infant's iron reserves diminish. It is a safe and appropriate first food to introduce to infants around 6 months of age, along with continued breastfeeding or formula feeding. Choice A is incorrect because waiting another month is not necessary if the infant is 6 months old. Choice B is incorrect as introducing pureed fruits as the first food may not provide the necessary iron that the infant needs at this stage. Choice D is also incorrect as scheduling a developmental assessment is not indicated solely based on the desire to start solid foods; it is more appropriate to reassure the mother about starting iron-fortified cereal.
2. A postpartum client who is Rh-negative refuses to receive RhoGAM after the delivery of an infant who is Rh-positive. Which information should the nurse provide this client?
- A. RhoGAM prevents maternal antibody formation for future Rh-positive babies.
- B. RhoGAM is not necessary unless all of her pregnancies are Rh-positive.
- C. The Rh-positive factor from the fetus threatens her blood cells.
- D. The mother should receive RhoGAM when the baby is Rh-negative.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. RhoGAM is administered to Rh-negative individuals after exposure to Rh-positive blood to prevent the development of antibodies that could harm future Rh-positive babies during subsequent pregnancies. By refusing RhoGAM after the delivery of an Rh-positive infant, the mother risks developing these antibodies, which could lead to hemolytic disease in future pregnancies with Rh-positive babies. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to explain to the client that receiving RhoGAM prevents the formation of maternal antibodies against Rh-positive blood, safeguarding the health of future babies. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is incorrect because RhoGAM is necessary after exposure to Rh-positive blood, regardless of the Rh status of future pregnancies. Choice C is incorrect as it does not accurately convey the purpose of RhoGAM administration. Choice D is incorrect because RhoGAM is specifically given after exposure to Rh-positive blood, not when the baby is Rh-negative.
3. The parents of a 3-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) ask, 'How can our son have this disease? We are wondering if we should have any more children.' What information should the nurse provide these parents?
- A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family.
- B. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated, leading to muscle damage.
- C. The lack of the protein dystrophin in the mother can impact the XXX muscle groups of males.
- D. Spinal cord damage due to birth trauma during a breech vaginal birth weakens the muscles.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder, meaning the gene mutation causing DMD is located on the X chromosome. Males have one X chromosome and one Y chromosome, so if the X chromosome they inherit from their mother carries the mutated gene, they will develop DMD. Females have two X chromosomes, so they are carriers of the gene but are usually not affected by the disease. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the parents that DMD is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder that primarily affects male children in the family.
4. A one-day-old neonate develops a cephalohematoma. The nurse should closely assess this neonate for which common complication?
- A. Jaundice.
- B. Poor feeding.
- C. Brain injury.
- D. Hypoglycemia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A cephalohematoma is a collection of blood between the skull and the periosteum. As the blood breaks down, there is an increased risk of jaundice due to the release of bilirubin from the breakdown of red blood cells. Jaundice is a common complication associated with cephalohematoma in neonates. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the neonate for signs of jaundice and manage it accordingly.
5. The healthcare provider is assessing a 38-week gestation newborn infant immediately following a vaginal birth. Which assessment finding best indicates that the infant is transitioning well to extrauterine life?
- A. Positive Babinski reflex.
- B. Flexion of all four extremities.
- C. Heart rate of 220 beats/min.
- D. Cries vigorously when stimulated.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A vigorous cry upon stimulation indicates that the newborn has good respiratory effort and is transitioning well to life outside the womb. It shows that the infant's airways are clear, and they are able to establish effective breathing, a crucial aspect of transitioning successfully to extrauterine life. Choices A, B, and C are not the best indicators of successful transition to extrauterine life. The Babinski reflex and flexion of extremities are normal neonatal reflexes and do not specifically indicate successful transition. A heart rate of 220 beats/min is abnormally high for a newborn and could indicate distress rather than a smooth transition.
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