HESI RN
HESI Maternity 55 Questions Quizlet
1. At 40-weeks gestation, a client presents to the obstetrical floor indicating that the amniotic membranes ruptured spontaneously at home. She is in active labor and feels the need to bear down and push. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?
- A. Color and consistency of fluid.
- B. Estimated amount of fluid.
- C. Any odor noted when membranes ruptured.
- D. Time the membranes ruptured.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The color and consistency of the amniotic fluid are crucial to assess for the presence of meconium, which may indicate fetal distress. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid can suggest fetal compromise and the need for further evaluation and monitoring. The estimated amount of fluid is less critical than assessing for meconium. While noting any odor when the membranes ruptured may provide some information, it is not as crucial as assessing for meconium. The time the membranes ruptured is important for documenting the timeline but does not directly impact immediate patient care like assessing for fetal distress.
2. During menopause, what do ovaries stop producing?
- A. Progesterone and Estrogen
- B. Prolactin
- C. Human chorionic gonadotropin
- D. Oxytocin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During menopause, the ovaries stop producing progesterone and estrogen. Progesterone and estrogen are hormones essential for the menstrual cycle and reproductive functions. Prolactin is a hormone responsible for milk production in the breasts and is not primarily produced by the ovaries. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is produced during pregnancy to support the production of progesterone and estrogen. Oxytocin is a hormone involved in labor and breastfeeding, not primarily produced by the ovaries.
3. A client with pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital. Which intervention has the highest priority?
- A. Monitor blood pressure frequently
- B. Start intravenous fluids at a fast rate
- C. Administer pain medication to reduce discomfort
- D. Give antihypertensive medications as prescribed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Start intravenous fluids at a fast rate. In a client with pheochromocytoma, the highest priority intervention is to ensure adequate intravascular volume before initiating any other treatment. This helps prevent a sudden drop in blood pressure that can occur due to the release of catecholamines during tumor manipulation. While monitoring blood pressure frequently is essential, ensuring adequate intravascular volume takes precedence. Administering pain medication and antihypertensive medications are important but are not the highest priority in the initial management of pheochromocytoma.
4. A mother brings her 2-year-old son to the clinic because he has been crying and pulling on his earlobe for the past 12 hours. The child's oral temperature is 101.2°F. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Ask the mother if the child has had a runny nose
- B. Cleanse purulent exudate from the affected ear canal
- C. Apply a topical antibiotic to the periauricular area
- D. Provide parent education to prevent recurrence
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a child presenting with ear pain and fever, asking if the child has had a runny nose is crucial in assessing possible causes of an ear infection. Respiratory infections can lead to secondary ear infections, so exploring symptoms related to upper respiratory tract infections, like a runny nose, can help in the evaluation and management of the child's condition. Choice B is incorrect because cleansing purulent exudate should be done by a healthcare provider, not a nurse, and only if necessary. Choice C is incorrect because applying a topical antibiotic without proper evaluation and prescription is not within the nurse's scope of practice. Choice D is incorrect because while parent education may be necessary, addressing the immediate concern of evaluating possible causes of the ear pain and fever takes priority.
5. The client who has a history of Parkinson's disease for the past 5 years is being assessed by the nurse. What symptoms would this client most likely exhibit?
- A. Loss of short-term memory, facial tics, and grimaces, and constant writhing movements.
- B. Shuffling gait, masklike facial expression, and tremors of the head.
- C. Extreme muscular weakness, easy fatigability, and ptosis.
- D. Numbness of the extremities, loss of balance, and visual disturbances.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Parkinson's Disease, a common neurologic progressive disorder in older clients, is characterized by symptoms such as shuffling gait, masklike facial expression, and tremors of the head and hands. Choice A is incorrect as symptoms like loss of short-term memory, facial tics, and constant writhing movements are not typically associated with Parkinson's disease. Choice C is incorrect as extreme muscular weakness, easy fatigability, and ptosis are more indicative of other conditions like myasthenia gravis. Choice D is incorrect as numbness of the extremities, loss of balance, and visual disturbances are not classic symptoms of Parkinson's disease.