HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. The nursing student is discussing with a preceptor the delegation of tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which tasks, delegated to a UAP, indicates the student needs further teaching about the delegation process?
- A. Assist a client post cerebral vascular accident to ambulate
- B. Feed a 2-year-old in balanced skeletal traction
- C. Care for a client with discharge orders
- D. Collect a sputum specimen for acid-fast bacillus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Caring for a client with discharge orders involves tasks that require critical thinking and clinical judgment, which are beyond the scope of a UAP. Delegating this task to a UAP can compromise patient safety and outcomes. The correct answer is C. Choices A, B, and D are appropriate tasks to delegate to a UAP based on their training and scope of practice. Assisting a client to ambulate, feeding a pediatric patient in traction, and collecting a sputum specimen are tasks that can be safely performed by a UAP under appropriate supervision.
2. A postoperative client with a history of diabetes mellitus is showing signs of hyperglycemia. What should the nurse assess first?
- A. Assess for signs of infection.
- B. Monitor the client’s fluid intake and output.
- C. Check the client’s capillary blood glucose level.
- D. Assess the client’s serum potassium level.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client’s capillary blood glucose level first. In a postoperative client with a history of diabetes mellitus showing signs of hyperglycemia, assessing blood glucose levels is crucial to confirm hyperglycemia and initiate appropriate interventions. While signs of infection are important to assess due to the client's postoperative status and diabetic history, checking the blood glucose level takes precedence to address the immediate concern of hyperglycemia. Monitoring fluid intake and output is essential but not the priority in this scenario. Assessing the client’s serum potassium level is important for overall assessment but not the initial step when hyperglycemia is suspected.
3. A client is admitted to isolation with active tuberculosis. What infection control measures should the nurse implement?
- A. Initiate protective environment precautions.
- B. Use droplet precautions only.
- C. Ensure a positive pressure environment in the room.
- D. Implement negative pressure and contact precautions.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When caring for a client with active tuberculosis, it is crucial to implement negative pressure rooms and contact precautions to prevent the spread of infection. Choice A, initiating protective environment precautions, is incorrect as this is not the recommended approach for tuberculosis. Choice B, using droplet precautions only, is insufficient as tuberculosis requires additional precautions. Choice C, ensuring a positive pressure environment in the room, is incorrect because negative pressure rooms are necessary to contain airborne pathogens like tuberculosis. Therefore, the most appropriate measures include implementing negative pressure rooms and contact precautions.
4. The healthcare provider prescribes an IV infusion of isoproterenol in D5W at 300 mcg/hour. How many ml/hour should the nurse set the pump to?
- A. 100 ml/hour
- B. 75 ml/hour
- C. 60 ml/hour
- D. 125 ml/hour
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the correct infusion rate, convert 300 mcg/hour to mg/hour (300 mcg = 0.3 mg). Since the IV solution is 1 mg in 250 ml, the rate is calculated as 0.3 mg/hour = 75 ml/hour. Therefore, the nurse should set the pump to 75 ml/hour. Choice A (100 ml/hour) is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choice C (60 ml/hour) is incorrect as it is lower than the correct rate. Choice D (125 ml/hour) is incorrect as it is higher than the correct rate.
5. A client has burns covering 40% of their total body surface area (TBSA). What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Monitor the client's urinary output hourly.
- B. Apply cool, moist dressings to the burned areas.
- C. Administer pain medication to reduce discomfort.
- D. Administer IV fluids to prevent hypovolemia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor the client's urinary output hourly. Clients with burns covering a large percentage of their total body surface area are at high risk for hypovolemia due to fluid loss. Monitoring urinary output is crucial because it helps assess kidney function and fluid balance, providing essential information about the client's hemodynamic status. Applying cool, moist dressings (choice B) is important but not the priority over assessing fluid balance. Administering pain medication (choice C) is essential for comfort but not the priority over monitoring for potential complications like hypovolemia. Administering IV fluids (choice D) is important to prevent hypovolemia, but monitoring urinary output should be the priority to guide fluid resuscitation.
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