the nursing student is discussing with a preceptor the delegation of tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel uap which tasks delegated to a uap ind
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone

1. The nursing student is discussing with a preceptor the delegation of tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which tasks, delegated to a UAP, indicates the student needs further teaching about the delegation process?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Caring for a client with discharge orders involves tasks that require critical thinking and clinical judgment, which are beyond the scope of a UAP. Delegating this task to a UAP can compromise patient safety and outcomes. The correct answer is C. Choices A, B, and D are appropriate tasks to delegate to a UAP based on their training and scope of practice. Assisting a client to ambulate, feeding a pediatric patient in traction, and collecting a sputum specimen are tasks that can be safely performed by a UAP under appropriate supervision.

2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of schizophrenia. The client refuses to take medication and states 'I don't think I need those medications. They make me too sleepy and drowsy. I insist that you explain their use and side effects.' The nurse should understand that

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client has a legal right to be informed about their treatment, including medication uses and side effects, as part of informed consent. This helps ensure that the client can make an informed decision about their care. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse can provide the client with information about their medications. Choice C is incorrect as it is not an independent decision of the nurse but a professional responsibility to educate clients. Choice D is incorrect as knowledge about medication side effects can actually empower clients to manage their condition effectively.

3. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed in a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is essential to drain secretions and prevent aspiration. This position helps facilitate the removal of secretions from the airways, reducing the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as the primary reason for elevating the head of the bed in ARDS is to assist with secretion drainage and prevent complications associated with aspiration.

4. A 4-year-old child is returned to the room following a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. Which of the following assessments would require the nurse's immediate attention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a post-tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy patient, frequent swallowing is a crucial assessment that requires immediate attention by the nurse. Frequent swallowing can indicate bleeding, a complication that needs urgent intervention. Coughing may be expected due to irritation from the surgery but is not as concerning as potential bleeding. Slow breathing and tachycardia are not typically immediate concerns following this type of surgery.

5. What is the expected outcome of prescribing a proton pump inhibitor to a client with a peptic ulcer?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduce gastric acid secretion. Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) work by reducing gastric acid secretion, which helps prevent further irritation of the gastric mucosa and allows ulcers to heal. While promoting healing of the gastric mucosa (Choice A) is an indirect outcome of reducing gastric acid secretion, the primary mechanism of PPIs is to lower acid levels. Choice B, neutralizing the effects of stomach acid, is typically associated with antacids, not PPIs. Inhibiting the growth of Helicobacter pylori (Choice C) is usually achieved with antibiotics, not PPIs.

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