HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. A client with diabetes mellitus is scheduled for surgery, and their blood glucose level is 280 mg/dL. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer insulin as prescribed.
- B. Delay surgery until the blood glucose is below 180 mg/dL.
- C. Check the client’s hemoglobin A1C level.
- D. Administer IV fluids to flush excess glucose.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer insulin as prescribed. In clients with diabetes, high blood glucose levels can increase the risk of infection and impair healing after surgery. Administering insulin as prescribed helps reduce blood glucose to a safer level before surgery, preventing complications. Choice B is incorrect because delaying surgery without addressing the high blood glucose level does not address the immediate issue. Choice C is incorrect as checking the client's hemoglobin A1C level is not the priority when dealing with acute high blood glucose levels before surgery. Choice D is incorrect as administering IV fluids may help with hydration but does not directly address the high blood glucose level that needs immediate attention.
2. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is experiencing chest pain. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram
- C. Call the healthcare provider
- D. Check the client's oxygen saturation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer sublingual nitroglycerin. Sublingual nitroglycerin is the first-line treatment for chest pain related to coronary artery disease. It helps dilate the coronary arteries and improve blood flow to the heart, providing immediate relief from ischemia. Administering nitroglycerin promptly can help alleviate the chest pain and prevent further complications. Obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram (Choice B) is important but should not delay the administration of nitroglycerin. Calling the healthcare provider (Choice C) can be done after initiating immediate treatment. Checking the client's oxygen saturation (Choice D) is relevant but not the first action to take in this scenario.
3. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin, and their INR is elevated. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer a dose of vitamin K to reverse the effects of warfarin.
- B. Monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising or nosebleeds.
- C. Increase the client’s warfarin dosage to prevent clot formation.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately and hold the next dose of warfarin.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated INR in clients taking warfarin increases the risk of bleeding, indicating the dose may be too high. The nurse's priority action is to notify the healthcare provider immediately and hold the next dose of warfarin to prevent bleeding complications. Administering vitamin K is not the first-line intervention for an elevated INR. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is important but not the priority over contacting the healthcare provider. Increasing the warfarin dosage can exacerbate the risk of bleeding and is contraindicated.
4. An antibiotic IM injection for a 2-year-old child is ordered. The total volume of the injection equals 2.0 ml. The correct action is to
- A. Administer the medication in 2 separate injections
- B. Give the medication in the dorsal gluteal site
- C. Call to get a smaller volume ordered
- D. Check with the pharmacy for a liquid form of the medication
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Injections over 1 mL should be split into two separate injections for young children. This helps in preventing discomfort, ensuring proper absorption, and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Giving the medication in one injection of 2.0 ml might be too much for a 2-year-old child. Choices B and D are incorrect because the dorsal gluteal site is not recommended for children due to potential injury, and changing the form of medication might not be necessary if the volume can be adjusted. Choice C is unnecessary as splitting the dose into two injections is the appropriate action.
5. A client with cirrhosis is at risk for bleeding due to impaired liver function. Which laboratory result is the most important to monitor?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)
- C. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
- D. Serum albumin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is a critical indicator of bleeding risk in clients with liver dysfunction. Impaired liver function reduces clotting factor production, leading to an increased PT, which requires close monitoring. Monitoring BUN (Choice A) is more indicative of kidney function, not clotting ability. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) (Choice C) and serum albumin (Choice D) are important indicators of liver function, but they do not directly assess the client's bleeding risk.
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