Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes mellitus is scheduled for surgery, and their blood glucose level is 280 mg/dL. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer insulin as prescribed.
• B. Delay surgery until the blood glucose is below 180 mg/dL.
• C. Check the client’s hemoglobin A1C level.
• D. Administer IV fluids to flush excess glucose.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer insulin as prescribed. In clients with diabetes, high blood glucose levels can increase the risk of infection and impair healing after surgery. Administering insulin as prescribed helps reduce blood glucose to a safer level before surgery, preventing complications. Choice B is incorrect because delaying surgery without addressing the high blood glucose level does not address the immediate issue. Choice C is incorrect as checking the client's hemoglobin A1C level is not the priority when dealing with acute high blood glucose levels before surgery. Choice D is incorrect as administering IV fluids may help with hydration but does not directly address the high blood glucose level that needs immediate attention.

2. A client has suspected compartment syndrome of the right lower leg. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?

• A. Elevate the right leg to reduce swelling.
• B. Loosen any restrictive dressings on the leg.
• C. Prepare the client for emergency surgery.
• D. Administer pain medication as prescribed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a suspected case of compartment syndrome, the nurse's priority intervention is to loosen any restrictive dressings on the leg. This action helps to relieve pressure within the affected compartment, improve circulation, and prevent permanent damage. Elevating the leg may further increase pressure, preparing for emergency surgery is premature without proper assessment and diagnosis, and administering pain medication should come after addressing the primary issue of relieving pressure.

3. A client receiving chemotherapy for cancer treatment is experiencing nausea and vomiting. What is the nurse's best intervention to manage these symptoms?

• A. Offer frequent, small meals
• B. Administer antiemetics before meals
• C. Encourage the client to eat a high-fat diet
• D. Provide the client with cold, carbonated beverages

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering antiemetics before meals is the best intervention to manage nausea and vomiting in clients receiving chemotherapy. This proactive approach helps control symptoms by preventing nausea from occurring, rather than waiting to treat it once symptoms have already started. Offering frequent, small meals (choice A) may worsen symptoms in some cases due to increased stomach activity. Encouraging a high-fat diet (choice C) can be difficult for nauseated clients and may not alleviate symptoms. Providing cold, carbonated beverages (choice D) could exacerbate nausea further due to the temperature and carbonation.

4. The nurse is teaching a client with asthma to use a peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) meter to manage asthma at home. The nurse knows the client understands the proper use of the meter when the client:

• A. Inhales as rapidly as possible when using the meter
• B. Records the highest of three readings
• C. Uses the meter after taking a bronchodilator
• D. Blows out forcefully into the meter after taking a deep breath

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Records the highest of three readings.' When using a peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) meter, the client should record the highest of three readings to ensure an accurate measurement of their peak expiratory flow rate. Inhaling rapidly, using the meter after taking a bronchodilator, or blowing out forcefully into the meter after a deep breath are not correct techniques for using a PEFR meter and may lead to inaccurate results.

5. A male client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer prescribed anticoagulant.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Auscultate lung sounds.
• D. Prepare for chest physiotherapy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering an anticoagulant is the nurse's priority action in this situation. Given the client's history of DVT and the presentation of new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough, there is a concern for a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening complication of DVT. Administering an anticoagulant promptly is crucial to prevent further clot formation and to manage the existing clot, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism. While auscultating lung sounds and preparing for chest physiotherapy are important actions in respiratory assessment and management, the priority in this case is to address the potential complication of a pulmonary embolism by administering the anticoagulant. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after initiating the immediate intervention of anticoagulant therapy.

Similar Questions