HESI RN TEST BANK

HESI Nutrition Practice Exam

The parents of a child on phenytoin (Dilantin) have received discharge instructions from the nurse. Which of the following statements suggests that the teaching was effective?

    A. We will call the healthcare provider if the child develops acne.

    B. Our child should brush and floss carefully after every meal.

    C. We will skip the next dose if vomiting or fever occurs.

    D. When our child is seizure-free for 6 months, we can stop the medication.

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Proper oral hygiene, including brushing and flossing carefully after every meal, is essential for children on phenytoin to prevent gingival hyperplasia, a common side effect. Choice A is incorrect because acne is not a common side effect of phenytoin and does not require immediate healthcare provider notification. Choice C is incorrect because vomiting or fever should not prompt skipping a dose without consulting the healthcare provider first. Choice D is incorrect because discontinuing phenytoin should never be done abruptly or without healthcare provider guidance, even if the child is seizure-free for 6 months.

An elderly client admitted after a fall begins to seize and loses consciousness. What action by the nurse is appropriate to do next?

  • A. Stay with the client and observe for airway obstruction
  • B. Collect pillows and pad the side rails of the bed
  • C. Place an oral airway in the mouth and suction
  • D. Announce a cardiac arrest and assist with intubation

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to stay with the client and observe for airway obstruction. This is crucial as it ensures immediate intervention if there is any airway compromise. Choice B is incorrect as padding the side rails of the bed is not the priority in this situation. Choice C is incorrect because inserting an oral airway and suctioning should only be done if there is evidence of airway obstruction, and it is not the initial step. Choice D is incorrect as announcing a cardiac arrest and assisting with intubation is not the immediate action needed when a client is seizing and losing consciousness.

A client is being maintained on heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis. The nurse must closely monitor which of the following laboratory values?

  • A. Bleeding time
  • B. Platelet count
  • C. Activated PTT
  • D. Clotting time

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Activated PTT is the correct lab value to monitor for clients on heparin therapy. Activated PTT (partial thromboplastin time) helps assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy by measuring the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring activated PTT ensures that the client is within the therapeutic range of heparin to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications. Bleeding time (Choice A) and platelet count (Choice B) are not specific indicators of heparin therapy effectiveness. Clotting time (Choice D) is not as sensitive as activated PTT in monitoring heparin therapy.

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has COPD. Which of the following instructions by the nurse is appropriate?

  • A. Drink carbonated beverages.
  • B. Decrease fiber intake.
  • C. Use bronchodilators after meals.
  • D. Increase protein intake.

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase protein intake. This is appropriate because increasing protein intake can help maintain muscle mass and strength in clients with COPD. Option A, 'Drink carbonated beverages,' is incorrect as carbonated beverages can exacerbate COPD symptoms. Option B, 'Decrease fiber intake,' is also incorrect as fiber is important for digestion and should not be decreased unless specifically advised by a healthcare provider. Option C, 'Use bronchodilators after meals,' is incorrect because bronchodilators are typically used before meals to help open the airways for better breathing, not after meals.

While assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility, which client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers?

  • A. A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest
  • B. An obese client who uses a wheelchair
  • C. A client who had 3 incontinent diarrhea stools
  • D. An 80-year-old ambulatory diabetic client

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest. This client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to poor nutrition and immobility. Malnutrition can impair tissue healing and increase susceptibility to skin breakdown, while prolonged bed rest can lead to pressure ulcers. Choice B is incorrect because obesity can cushion pressure points and reduce the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as incontinence predisposes to moisture-associated skin damage rather than pressure ulcers. Choice D is incorrect as an ambulatory client is less likely to develop pressure ulcers compared to bedridden clients.

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