Nursing Elites

1. The parents of a child on phenytoin (Dilantin) have received discharge instructions from the nurse. Which of the following statements suggests that the teaching was effective?

• A. We will call the healthcare provider if the child develops acne.
• B. Our child should brush and floss carefully after every meal.
• C. We will skip the next dose if vomiting or fever occurs.
• D. When our child is seizure-free for 6 months, we can stop the medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Proper oral hygiene, including brushing and flossing carefully after every meal, is essential for children on phenytoin to prevent gingival hyperplasia, a common side effect. Choice A is incorrect because acne is not a common side effect of phenytoin and does not require immediate healthcare provider notification. Choice C is incorrect because vomiting or fever should not prompt skipping a dose without consulting the healthcare provider first. Choice D is incorrect because discontinuing phenytoin should never be done abruptly or without healthcare provider guidance, even if the child is seizure-free for 6 months.

2. A primigravida in the third trimester is hospitalized for preeclampsia. The nurse determines that the client's blood pressure is increasing. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the protein level in urine
• B. Have the client turn to the left side
• C. Take the temperature
• D. Monitor the urine output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of preeclampsia with increasing blood pressure, the priority action for the nurse is to have the client turn to the left side. This position helps improve blood flow to the placenta and fetus, reducing the risk of complications. Checking the protein level in urine (Choice A) is important for assessing preeclampsia but not the immediate priority when blood pressure is increasing. Taking the temperature (Choice C) is not directly related to addressing increased blood pressure in preeclampsia. Monitoring urine output (Choice D) is essential but not the first action to take when blood pressure is rising.

3. When caring for a client with a post right thoracotomy who has undergone an upper lobectomy, the nurse focuses on pain management to promote

• A. Relaxation and sleep
• B. Deep breathing and coughing
• C. Incisional healing
• D. Range of motion exercises

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Effective pain management encourages deep breathing and coughing, which are crucial for preventing complications after thoracic surgery. These actions help prevent respiratory complications such as pneumonia and atelectasis, promote lung expansion, and improve oxygenation. While relaxation and sleep are important for recovery, the priority after a thoracotomy and lobectomy is to prevent respiratory issues. Incisional healing is important but not the primary focus immediately post-surgery. Range of motion exercises are not directly related to promoting recovery after thoracic surgery.

4. Which bed position is preferred for use with a client in an extended care facility on a falls risk prevention protocol?

• A. All 4 side rails up, wheels locked, bed closest to door
• B. Lower side rails up, bed facing the doorway
• C. Knees bent, head slightly elevated, bed in the lowest position
• D. Bed in the lowest position, wheels locked, place bed against the wall

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Placing the bed in the lowest position, ensuring wheels are locked, and positioning it against the wall is the preferred bed position for a client in an extended care facility on a falls risk prevention protocol. This setup helps minimize the risk of falls by providing a stable and secure environment. Choices A, B, and C do not address key factors such as having the bed in the lowest position and placing it against the wall, which are crucial in preventing falls in such a setting.

5. A client with a history of seizures is being monitored with an electroencephalogram (EEG). Which of these interventions should the nurse perform to prepare the client for the test?

• A. Instruct the client to avoid caffeine for 8 hours before the test
• B. Explain the procedure to the client and obtain consent
• C. Administer anticonvulsant medication as ordered
• D. Instruct the client to wash their hair the morning of the test

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Instructing the client to avoid caffeine for 8 hours before the EEG is essential. This intervention helps ensure accurate test results by preventing stimulation of the nervous system, which could interfere with the interpretation of the brain's electrical activity. Explaining the procedure and obtaining consent are important steps but do not directly impact the test results. Administering anticonvulsant medication as ordered is a medical intervention and not a preparation step for the test. Instructing the client to wash their hair the morning of the test is not necessary for EEG preparation.

Similar Questions