Nursing Elites

1. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin, and their INR is elevated. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a dose of vitamin K to reverse the effects of warfarin.
• B. Monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising or nosebleeds.
• C. Increase the client’s warfarin dosage to prevent clot formation.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately and hold the next dose of warfarin.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated INR in clients taking warfarin increases the risk of bleeding, indicating the dose may be too high. The nurse's priority action is to notify the healthcare provider immediately and hold the next dose of warfarin to prevent bleeding complications. Administering vitamin K is not the first-line intervention for an elevated INR. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is important but not the priority over contacting the healthcare provider. Increasing the warfarin dosage can exacerbate the risk of bleeding and is contraindicated.

2. The healthcare provider prescribes a sedative for a client with severe hypothyroidism. What is the best action for the nurse to take?

• A. Affirm the nurse's plan to review the prescription with the provider.
• B. Administer the sedative as prescribed.
• C. Advise the nurse to administer the medication as prescribed.
• D. Offer to administer the medication since the nurse is concerned.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to affirm the nurse's plan to review the prescription with the provider. Sedatives can worsen symptoms of hypothyroidism, so it is crucial to ensure the safety of the prescribed medication. Administering the sedative without further consultation could lead to adverse effects. Simply advising the nurse to administer the medication without addressing the need for review is not the best course of action. Offering to administer the medication without proper assessment or consulting the provider is not appropriate and could potentially harm the client.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) who is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent complications?

• A. Elevate the affected leg
• B. Encourage early ambulation
• C. Perform frequent range-of-motion exercises
• D. Apply ice packs to the affected leg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the affected leg is crucial in managing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as it helps to reduce swelling and improve venous return. This intervention is essential for preventing complications such as pulmonary embolism. Encouraging early ambulation is generally beneficial for preventing DVT but is secondary to leg elevation. Performing range-of-motion exercises can be helpful for maintaining joint mobility but is not the priority intervention in this case. Applying ice packs to the affected leg is not recommended in DVT management as it can cause vasoconstriction and potentially worsen the condition.

4. A 48-year-old client with chronic alcoholism is admitted to the hospital. The nurse would anticipate that the client may be deficient in which vitamins?

• A. Vitamin B and vitamin C
• B. Vitamin D and vitamin E
• C. Vitamin K and vitamin A
• D. Vitamin A and vitamin E

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Chronic alcoholism commonly leads to deficiencies in B vitamins, particularly thiamine, and vitamin C. Thiamine deficiency can result in serious neurological issues like Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, while vitamin C deficiency can lead to scurvy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because vitamin D and E deficiencies are not typically associated with chronic alcoholism.

5. A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client’s teaching plan?

• A. Pap smear is sufficient to detect ovarian cancer
• B. Surgery is unnecessary based on negative Pap smear
• C. Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed
• D. No further tests are needed

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A negative Pap smear does not rule out ovarian cancer, which often requires more comprehensive evaluation, including imaging studies or surgery. The client should be informed that the Pap smear primarily detects cervical cancer, not ovarian cancer. Therefore, further evaluation involving imaging studies or surgery may be necessary to determine the presence of ovarian cancer. Choice A is incorrect because a Pap smear is not sufficient to detect ovarian cancer. Choice B is incorrect because surgery may be necessary for further evaluation if ovarian cancer is suspected. Choice D is incorrect because further tests are needed to confirm or rule out ovarian cancer.

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