Nursing Elites

1. Prior to administering warfarin to a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, what lab result should the nurse review?

• A. White blood cell count.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR).
• C. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR). These lab values are crucial for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes these results. Ensuring the client's PT/INR levels are within the therapeutic range is essential to prevent clotting or excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation.

2. The nurse is caring for a client following a craniotomy. Which finding should the nurse report immediately?

• A. Pupils equal and reactive to light.
• B. Sudden increase in urine output.
• C. Diminished breath sounds bilaterally.
• D. Increase in blood pressure by 20 mmHg.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Diminished breath sounds bilaterally.' This finding should be reported immediately as it could indicate a serious complication such as increased intracranial pressure or respiratory compromise. In a post-craniotomy client, changes in breath sounds may be a sign of developing issues that need prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and D are not as critical in the immediate post-craniotomy period. Pupils equal and reactive to light are expected findings, a sudden increase in urine output may require monitoring but not immediate reporting, and a small increase in blood pressure may not be alarming unless it is significantly high or accompanied by other concerning signs.

3. The nurse receives a report on an older adult client with middle stage dementia. What information suggests the nurse should do immediate follow-up rather than delegate care to the nursing assistant?

• A. Has had a change in respiratory rate with an increase of 2 breaths
• B. Has had a change in heart rate with an increase of 10 beats
• C. Was minimally responsive to voice and touch
• D. Has had a blood pressure change with a drop of 8 mmHg systolic

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A change in responsiveness, as indicated by being minimally responsive to voice and touch, suggests a potential acute issue that requires immediate nursing assessment and intervention rather than delegation. Changes in vital signs (choices A, B, D) can be important but do not always indicate an immediate need for nursing intervention compared to a change in responsiveness.

4. A client with acute pancreatitis is experiencing severe abdominal pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement to help manage the client's pain?

• A. Encourage deep breathing exercises
• B. Place the client in a side-lying position with knees bent
• C. Administer oral analgesics as prescribed
• D. Encourage the client to take small sips of water

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention to help manage the client's pain in acute pancreatitis is to place the client in a side-lying position with knees bent. This position can alleviate abdominal pain by reducing pressure on the pancreas and improving comfort. Encouraging deep breathing exercises (Choice A) is beneficial for other conditions but may not directly help alleviate abdominal pain in pancreatitis. Administering oral analgesics (Choice C) may be necessary but is not the initial priority for managing pain in acute pancreatitis. Encouraging the client to take small sips of water (Choice D) is important for hydration but is not directly related to pain management in this context.

5. During an initial assessment, a healthcare provider notes that a client has elevated blood pressure. Which of the following findings is considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease?

• A. Elevated HDL cholesterol
• B. Low LDL cholesterol
• C. Elevated blood pressure
• D. Low triglyceride levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated blood pressure is a significant risk factor for coronary artery disease because it increases the strain on the arteries, leading to potential damage and a higher risk of developing coronary artery disease. Elevated HDL cholesterol (Choice A) is actually considered beneficial as it helps reduce the risk of heart disease. Low LDL cholesterol (Choice B) is also beneficial as high levels of LDL are associated with an increased risk of coronary artery disease. Low triglyceride levels (Choice D) are not typically considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease.

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