Nursing Elites

1. Prior to administering warfarin to a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, what lab result should the nurse review?

• A. White blood cell count.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR).
• C. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR). These lab values are crucial for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes these results. Ensuring the client's PT/INR levels are within the therapeutic range is essential to prevent clotting or excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation.

2. A young male client is admitted to rehabilitation following a right AKA (above-the-knee amputation) for a severe traumatic injury. He is in the commons room and anxiously calls out to the nurse, stating that his 'right foot is aching.' The nurse offers reassurance and support. Which additional intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Teach the client distraction techniques
• B. Provide a soft blanket to ease discomfort
• C. Administer prescribed pain medication
• D. Encourage discussion of feelings about the loss of his limb

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's report of pain in a missing limb is consistent with phantom limb pain, which can be distressing. Encouraging the client to discuss his feelings helps address the emotional and psychological aspects of the amputation and supports his overall recovery. Teaching distraction techniques (choice A) may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying emotional distress. Providing a soft blanket (choice B) is not the priority when dealing with phantom limb pain. Administering pain medication (choice C) may not effectively manage phantom limb pain as it is more related to central nervous system changes rather than tissue damage.

3. A client with a history of alcohol abuse presents with confusion and unsteady gait. The nurse suspects Wernicke's encephalopathy. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Thiamine supplementation
• B. Folic acid replacement
• C. Intravenous glucose
• D. Magnesium sulfate administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological condition commonly caused by a deficiency in thiamine, often seen in clients with chronic alcohol abuse. Thiamine supplementation is the primary treatment to prevent further neurological damage. Folic acid replacement (choice B) is not the correct treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy. Intravenous glucose (choice C) may be necessary in some cases of Wernicke's encephalopathy, but thiamine supplementation takes precedence. Magnesium sulfate administration (choice D) is not indicated as the primary treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy.

4. A male client with HIV receiving saquinavir PO in combination with other antiretrovirals reports constant hunger and thirst but is losing weight. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Use a glucometer to check glucose level.
• B. Teach client to measure weight accurately.
• C. Explain that medication dose may need to be increased.
• D. Reassure client weight will increase as viral load decreases.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to use a glucometer to check the client's glucose level. Saquinavir, an HIV medication, can lead to hyperglycemia, which may cause symptoms like constant hunger and thirst while losing weight. Checking the glucose level will help assess for hyperglycemia. Choice B is not the priority in this situation as the client's weight loss is a concerning symptom that needs immediate attention. Choice C is incorrect because increasing the medication dose without assessing the glucose level first could exacerbate hyperglycemia. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the symptoms of constant hunger, thirst, and weight loss, which may indicate a more urgent issue like hyperglycemia.

5. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions regarding the administration of alendronate (Fosamax)?

• A. I will take the medication at bedtime to avoid stomach upset.
• B. I will take the medication with a full glass of water first thing in the morning.
• C. I will lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• D. I will take the medication with food to reduce stomach irritation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alendronate (Fosamax) should be taken with a full glass of water in the morning to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption. Choice A is incorrect because taking alendronate at bedtime increases the risk of esophageal irritation due to lying down. Choice C is incorrect because patients should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking alendronate to prevent esophageal irritation. Choice D is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with food, to enhance absorption.

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