a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin what lab result should the nurse review prior to administering the medication
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone

1. Prior to administering warfarin to a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, what lab result should the nurse review?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR). These lab values are crucial for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes these results. Ensuring the client's PT/INR levels are within the therapeutic range is essential to prevent clotting or excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation.

2. A client with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. What should the nurse teach the client about lithium toxicity?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients taking lithium should avoid NSAIDs as they can increase lithium levels leading to toxicity. It is essential to monitor lithium levels regularly and maintain hydration to prevent toxicity. Reporting symptoms like nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea is important, but the key teaching point regarding lithium toxicity is to avoid NSAIDs.

3. A 4-year-old child falls off a tricycle and is admitted for observation. How can the nurse best facilitate the child's cooperation during the assessment?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Engaging the child in blowing out the penlight simulates play and can reduce fear, helping with cooperation during the assessment. Choice A is not recommended as it may increase anxiety by separating the child from the parent. Choice B is not appropriate as it involves playing with a syringe, which may not be safe or suitable. Choice D is not ideal for a 4-year-old child as understanding organ functions may be beyond their developmental level.

4. What does the nurse's signature on the client’s surgical consent form signify?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's signature on a surgical consent form signifies that the client voluntarily grants permission for the procedure to be done. This is the correct answer because the nurse's signature does not imply the client's competence, understanding of risks and benefits, or that the client signed the form freely and voluntarily. The nurse's role is to verify that the client has made an informed decision and is providing consent for the procedure.

5. A client on long-term corticosteroid therapy for rheumatoid arthritis presents with weakness and hypotension. What is the nurse's first action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of corticosteroids is the correct first action when a client on long-term corticosteroid therapy presents with weakness and hypotension. In this scenario, the client is likely experiencing adrenal insufficiency due to prolonged corticosteroid use. Administering corticosteroids promptly can help correct this insufficiency and improve the client's symptoms. Placing the client in a supine position may be necessary for symptomatic hypotension, but addressing the root cause with corticosteroids is more crucial initially. Encouraging oral fluid intake is important for many conditions but is not the priority in this case. Reviewing the client's recent medication history can provide valuable information but is not the first action needed to address the client's current presentation.

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