HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam
1. The nurse who is working on a surgical unit receives a change of shift report on a group of clients for the upcoming shift. A client with which condition requires the most immediate attention by the nurse?
- A. Gunshot wound three hours ago with dark drainage of 2 cm noted on the dressing.
- B. Mastectomy 2 days ago with 50 ml bloody drainage noted in the Jackson-Pratt drain.
- C. Collapsed lung after a fall 8 hours ago with 100 ml blood in the chest tube collection container
- D. Abdominal-perineal resection 2 days ago with no drainage on dressing who has fever and chills.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client who had an abdominal-perineal resection 2 days ago with no drainage on the dressing but is presenting with fever and chills requires immediate attention. This presentation raises concerns for peritonitis, a serious complication that necessitates prompt assessment and intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an immediate risk for a life-threatening condition like peritonitis, making them lower priority compared to choice D.
2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- C. Use of accessory muscles
- D. Inspiratory crackles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use of accessory muscles.' In a client with COPD and pneumonia, the use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing. This finding is concerning as it may signal respiratory failure, requiring immediate intervention. Oxygen saturation of 90% (choice A) is low but not as immediately concerning as the increased work of breathing. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute (choice B) is slightly elevated but not as critical as the use of accessory muscles. Inspiratory crackles (choice D) may be present in pneumonia but are not as indicative of impending respiratory failure as the increased work of breathing shown by the use of accessory muscles.
3. A client with type 2 diabetes is admitted with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). Which clinical finding is most concerning to the nurse?
- A. Serum glucose of 500 mg/dL
- B. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
- C. Serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg
- D. Serum pH of 7.30
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg is the most concerning finding in a client with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS) as it indicates severe dehydration and hypertonicity. This high serum osmolarity level can lead to neurological complications and requires immediate intervention to prevent further deterioration. Serum glucose levels, blood pressure, and serum pH are important parameters to monitor in HHS, but a significantly elevated serum osmolarity poses a higher risk of complications and warrants urgent attention. High serum glucose levels, like 500 mg/dL, are expected in HHS but do not directly indicate the severity of dehydration. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg is within normal limits and may not be directly related to the acute complications of HHS. A serum pH of 7.30 suggests acidosis, which is important to address but may not be as immediately concerning as severe dehydration indicated by high serum osmolarity.
4. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of sepsis. Which assessment finding is most concerning to the nurse?
- A. Temperature of 101.5°F
- B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
- C. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- D. Blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg in a client with sepsis is concerning for septic shock, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention. Hypotension is a severe manifestation of sepsis that can lead to poor tissue perfusion and organ failure. While the other assessment findings such as an elevated temperature, increased heart rate, and respiratory rate are also common in sepsis, hypotension is particularly alarming as it indicates a critical state of shock and necessitates urgent medical attention.
5. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Muscle weakness
- C. Peaked T waves on the ECG
- D. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Peaked T waves on the ECG. In hyperkalemia, elevated potassium levels can affect the heart's electrical activity, leading to changes on the ECG such as peaked T waves. This finding is concerning as it can progress to serious cardiac arrhythmias, including ventricular tachycardia and fibrillation. Bradycardia (choice A) and decreased deep tendon reflexes (choice D) are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. While muscle weakness (choice B) can occur in hyperkalemia due to its effect on neuromuscular function, the most concerning assessment finding indicating the need for immediate intervention in this scenario is peaked T waves on the ECG.
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