HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam
1. The nurse who is working on a surgical unit receives a change of shift report on a group of clients for the upcoming shift. A client with which condition requires the most immediate attention by the nurse?
- A. Gunshot wound three hours ago with dark drainage of 2 cm noted on the dressing.
- B. Mastectomy 2 days ago with 50 ml bloody drainage noted in the Jackson-Pratt drain.
- C. Collapsed lung after a fall 8 hours ago with 100 ml blood in the chest tube collection container
- D. Abdominal-perineal resection 2 days ago with no drainage on dressing who has fever and chills.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client who had an abdominal-perineal resection 2 days ago with no drainage on the dressing but is presenting with fever and chills requires immediate attention. This presentation raises concerns for peritonitis, a serious complication that necessitates prompt assessment and intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an immediate risk for a life-threatening condition like peritonitis, making them lower priority compared to choice D.
2. A newly graduated female staff nurse approaches the nurse manager and requests reassignment to another client because a male client is asking her for a date and making suggestive comments. Which response is best for the nurse manager to provide?
- A. I have to call the supervisor to get someone else to transfer to this unit to care for him.
- B. I know you are a good nurse and can handle this client in a professional manner.
- C. I'll talk to the client about his sexual harassment and insist that he stop immediately.
- D. I'll change your assignment, but let's talk about how a nurse should respond to this kind of client.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best response for the nurse manager is option D. Changing the assignment while providing guidance on professional boundaries and how to handle such situations is essential. Option A is not appropriate as it does not address the issue of the client's behavior. Option B, although supportive, does not offer a solution to the problem at hand. Option C is not the best approach as directly confronting the client about sexual harassment may escalate the situation further.
3. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which laboratory value should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before the procedure?
- A. Serum creatinine of 1.8 mg/dl
- B. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds
- C. Hemoglobin of 9 g/dl
- D. Platelet count of 90,000/mm3
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A platelet count of 90,000/mm3 is low and concerning for a client scheduled for a renal biopsy, as it increases the risk of bleeding. Thrombocytopenia, indicated by a low platelet count, can lead to impaired blood clotting, posing a significant risk of bleeding during or after the biopsy procedure. Elevated serum creatinine levels may be expected in chronic kidney disease but are not directly related to bleeding risk during a renal biopsy. Prothrombin time and hemoglobin levels are not as directly relevant to the bleeding risk associated with a renal biopsy as platelet count.
4. A client with gestational diabetes, at 39 weeks of gestation, is in the second stage of labor. After delivering the fetal head, the nurse recognizes that shoulder dystocia is occurring. What intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Prepare the client for an emergency cesarean birth
- B. Encourage the client to move to a hands-and-knees position
- C. Assist the client to sharply flex her thighs up against the abdomen
- D. Lower the head of the bed and apply suprapubic pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In cases of shoulder dystocia, the priority intervention is to assist the client in sharply flexing her thighs up against the abdomen (McRoberts maneuver). This action helps to widen the pelvic outlet. Encouraging the client to move to a hands-and-knees position may also be beneficial in some cases but is not the first-line intervention. Preparing for an emergency cesarean birth and applying suprapubic pressure are not appropriate initial interventions for shoulder dystocia.
5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed.
- B. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
- C. Assess the client's oxygen saturation.
- D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Assessing the client's oxygen saturation is the first priority in managing a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen to ensure adequate oxygenation. Monitoring oxygen saturation levels helps in determining the effectiveness of the oxygen therapy and if adjustments are needed. Elevating the head of the bed can help with breathing but is not the first priority. Administering oxygen therapy as prescribed is important, but assessing the current oxygen saturation comes before administering more oxygen. Obtaining an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample may provide valuable information, but it is not the initial intervention needed in this situation.
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