HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
- B. Elevate the head of the bed.
- C. Obtain a sputum culture.
- D. Administer antibiotics as prescribed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer oxygen therapy as prescribed. In COPD exacerbation, the priority is to improve oxygenation. Administering oxygen therapy helps ensure an adequate oxygen supply to the body's tissues. Elevating the head of the bed can improve ventilation but is not the first intervention needed in this situation. Obtaining a sputum culture and administering antibiotics are important in COPD exacerbation but come after ensuring proper oxygenation.
2. The nurse determines that a client's pupils constrict as they change focus from a far object. What documentation should the nurse enter about this finding?
- A. Pupils reactive to accommodation.
- B. Nystagmus present with pupillary focus.
- C. Peripheral vision intact.
- D. Consensual pupillary constriction present.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Pupils reactive to accommodation.' When pupils constrict as the client changes focus from a far object to a near one, it indicates a normal response known as accommodation. This physiological process allows the eyes to adjust their focus, and it is a healthy finding. Choice B is incorrect because nystagmus is an involuntary eye movement, not related to the change in focus. Choice C is irrelevant to the scenario and does not describe the observed finding. Choice D refers to pupillary constriction in response to light, not accommodation to changes in focus.
3. A client with liver cirrhosis is admitted with ascites and jaundice. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Serum albumin of 3.0 g/dL
- B. Bilirubin of 3.0 mg/dL
- C. Ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL
- D. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL is elevated and concerning in a client with liver cirrhosis, as it may indicate hepatic encephalopathy. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to cognitive impairment, altered mental status, and even coma. Serum albumin, bilirubin, and prothrombin time are also important markers in liver cirrhosis but are not as directly associated with the risk of hepatic encephalopathy as elevated ammonia levels.
4. The nurse is preparing a 50 ml dose of 50% dextrose IV for a client with insulin shock. What is the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Dilute the dextrose in one liter of 0.9% Normal Saline solution.
- B. Mix the dextrose in a 50 ml piggyback for a total volume of 100 ml.
- C. Push the undiluted dextrose slowly through the current IV infusion.
- D. Ask the pharmacist to add the dextrose to a TPN solution.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct immediate intervention by the nurse in this situation is to push the undiluted 50% dextrose slowly through the current IV infusion. This is because in cases of insulin shock, where the client has dangerously low blood sugar levels, administering 50% dextrose directly into the bloodstream helps rapidly increase blood glucose levels. Choice A is incorrect because diluting the dextrose in one liter of normal saline would delay the administration of glucose, which is needed urgently. Choice B is incorrect as mixing the dextrose in a piggyback solution would also delay the administration of the concentrated dextrose. Choice D is incorrect because adding dextrose to a TPN solution is not the immediate intervention needed to address the low blood sugar levels in a client experiencing insulin shock.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Increased fatigue
- B. Headache
- C. Elevated blood pressure
- D. Low urine output
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, an elevated blood pressure is the most concerning assessment finding. This finding can indicate worsening hypertension, which requires prompt intervention to prevent complications such as cardiovascular events or further kidney damage. Increased fatigue (Choice A) is a common symptom in CKD and can be expected with the condition itself or the treatment. Headache (Choice B) can also occur but is less specific to CKD or its treatment. Low urine output (Choice D) is a concern in CKD but may not be directly related to erythropoietin therapy.
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