HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. The nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a client with muscle wasting in the gluteal region. What is the most appropriate site for the injection?
- A. Dorsogluteal site
- B. Ventrogluteal site
- C. Deltoid site
- D. Vastus lateralis site
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The vastus lateralis site is the most appropriate for an IM injection in a client with muscle wasting in the gluteal region. Administering the injection in the vastus lateralis ensures effective medication delivery due to muscle wasting in the gluteal region, preventing potential complications associated with the dorsogluteal or ventrogluteal sites, which may not be suitable in this specific client case. The deltoid site is mainly used for smaller volumes of medication and may not be ideal for this scenario.
2. While removing staples from a male client's postoperative wound site, the nurse observes that the client's eyes are closed and his face and hands are clenched. The client states, 'I just hate having staples removed.' After acknowledging the client's anxiety, what action should the nurse implement?
- A. Attempt to distract the client with general conversation
- B. Administer a pain medication
- C. Continue with the procedure while reassuring the client
- D. Stop the procedure and notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, the nurse should attempt to distract the client with general conversation. Distracting the client can help reduce anxiety and make the procedure less stressful. Administering pain medication (choice B) is not appropriate as the client's discomfort is related to anxiety, not physical pain. Continuing with the procedure while reassuring the client (choice C) may not address the client's anxiety effectively. Stopping the procedure and notifying the healthcare provider (choice D) is not necessary at this point since the client's anxiety can be managed by attempting to distract him.
3. A client with severe COPD is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client's oxygen saturation level drops to 88% during ambulation. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters per minute.
- B. Instruct the client to rest until the oxygen saturation improves.
- C. Discontinue ambulation and return the client to bed.
- D. Encourage the client to breathe more deeply.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the client's oxygen saturation level dropping during ambulation indicates an inadequate oxygen supply. The first action the nurse should take is to discontinue ambulation and return the client to bed. This helps stabilize the oxygen level by reducing the oxygen demand placed on the client during physical activity. Increasing the oxygen flow rate without addressing the underlying issue of oxygen saturation dropping may not be effective. Instructing the client to rest is not enough to address the immediate need for stabilization of oxygen levels. Encouraging the client to breathe more deeply may not be sufficient to overcome the oxygen saturation drop caused by inadequate oxygen supply during ambulation.
4. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which laboratory value should be reported to the healthcare provider before the procedure?
- A. Serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL
- B. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
- C. Serum calcium of 8 mg/dL
- D. Serum bicarbonate of 24 mEq/L
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is dangerously high and should be reported before hemodialysis to prevent cardiac complications. High potassium levels can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Serum creatinine (Choice A) is elevated in renal dysfunction but not the most critical value to report before hemodialysis. Serum calcium (Choice C) and serum bicarbonate (Choice D) levels are within normal limits and are not immediate concerns before hemodialysis.
5. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with hepatic encephalopathy. Which clinical finding is most concerning?
- A. Confusion and altered mental status
- B. Increased abdominal girth
- C. Yellowing of the skin
- D. Peripheral edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Confusion and altered mental status are the most concerning clinical findings in a client with hepatic encephalopathy. These symptoms indicate worsening liver function and potential neurological complications, requiring immediate medical attention. Increased abdominal girth may suggest ascites, yellowing of the skin can indicate jaundice, and peripheral edema may be related to fluid retention, but in the context of hepatic encephalopathy, confusion and altered mental status take precedence due to the risk of rapid deterioration and the need for prompt management.
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