following a gunshot wound to the abdomen a young adult male had an emergency bowel resection and received multiple blood products his current blood pr
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2023

1. Following a gunshot wound to the abdomen, a young adult male had an emergency bowel resection and received multiple blood products. His current blood pressure is 78/52 mm Hg, and he is being mechanically ventilated. His oxygen saturation is 87%. Laboratory values indicate hemoglobin of 7 g/dL, platelets of 20,000/mm³, and white blood cells of 2,000/mm³. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to transfuse packed red blood cells first. The client's low hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL indicates severe anemia, which requires immediate transfusion to increase oxygen-carrying capacity. While obtaining blood and sputum cultures (Choice B) is important to identify potential infections, addressing the critical issue of anemia takes precedence. Infusing normal saline (Choice C) may help with volume status but does not address the primary concern of low hemoglobin. Titration of oxygen (Choice D) is crucial, but transfusion to improve oxygen-carrying capacity should be the priority in this scenario.

2. In assessing a client 48 hours following a fracture, the nurse observes ecchymosis at the fracture site and recognizes that hematoma formation at the bone fragment site has occurred. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After observing ecchymosis at the fracture site, indicating hematoma formation, the nurse's priority is to document the extent of the bruising in the medical record. This documentation helps track the client's condition, aids in treatment planning, and serves as a baseline for monitoring changes. Applying a cold compress (choice B) may be contraindicated due to the risk of vasoconstriction and potential tissue damage. Elevating the affected limb (choice C) can be beneficial for reducing swelling in some cases, but documenting the bruising is the immediate concern. Notifying the healthcare provider (choice D) is not necessary at this stage unless there are other concerning symptoms or complications beyond the hematoma formation.

3. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted with confusion, ataxia, and nystagmus. Which nursing intervention is a priority for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer thiamine as prescribed. Administering thiamine is crucial in clients with a history of alcoholism to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy, which is characterized by confusion, ataxia, and nystagmus. Monitoring for signs of alcohol withdrawal (choice A) is important but not the priority. Providing a quiet environment (choice C) and initiating fall precautions (choice D) are important interventions, but administering thiamine takes precedence due to the risk of Wernicke's encephalopathy.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Use of accessory muscles is the most concerning finding in a client with COPD experiencing an exacerbation. This indicates increased work of breathing and can be a sign of respiratory failure, requiring immediate intervention. Oxygen saturation of 90% is low but not as concerning as the increased work of breathing. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute can be within normal limits. Inspiratory crackles may be present in COPD due to airway inflammation but are not as concerning as the use of accessory muscles.

5. The healthcare provider should observe most closely for drug toxicity when a client receives a medication that has which characteristic?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, narrow therapeutic index. Narrow therapeutic index (NTI) drugs are defined as those drugs where small differences in dose or blood concentration may lead to serious therapeutic failures or adverse drug reactions. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the risk of drug toxicity. Low bioavailability (Choice A) refers to the amount of drug that enters the bloodstream unchanged after administration. Rapid onset of action (Choice B) and short half-life (Choice C) are characteristics related to drug effectiveness and metabolism but do not necessarily indicate a higher risk of drug toxicity.

Similar Questions

Which class of drugs is the only source of a cure for septic shock?
The nurse needs to add a medication to a liter of 5% Dextrose in Water (D5W) that is already infusing into a client. At what location should the nurse inject the medication?
A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?
An adult female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. After starting medication therapy, the nurse notices the client has more energy, is giving away her belongings, and has an elevated mood. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?
A female client reports that her hair is becoming coarse and breaking off, the outer part of her eyebrows has disappeared, and her eyes are all puffy. Which follow-up question is best for the nurse to ask?

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses