Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of sepsis. Which assessment finding is most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Temperature of 101.5°F
• B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
• C. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• D. Blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg in a client with sepsis is concerning for septic shock, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention. Hypotension is a severe manifestation of sepsis that can lead to poor tissue perfusion and organ failure. While the other assessment findings such as an elevated temperature, increased heart rate, and respiratory rate are also common in sepsis, hypotension is particularly alarming as it indicates a critical state of shock and necessitates urgent medical attention.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy who has thick, tenacious secretions. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Crepitus around the tracheostomy site
• B. Dry and cracked tracheostomy site
• C. Yellowing of the skin around the tracheostomy site
• D. Mucous plugging of the tracheostomy tube

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Mucous plugging of the tracheostomy tube is the most concerning finding in a client with a tracheostomy and thick secretions. This can lead to airway obstruction, which requires immediate intervention to maintain a patent airway. Crepitus around the tracheostomy site may indicate subcutaneous emphysema but does not pose an immediate threat to the airway. A dry and cracked tracheostomy site may require interventions to promote healing but is not as urgent as mucous plugging. Yellowing of the skin around the tracheostomy site could indicate infection or impaired circulation, which should be addressed but does not pose the same immediate risk as airway obstruction.

3. The nurse enters a client's room and observes the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) making an occupied bed as seen in the picture. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Place the side rails in an up position.
• B. Assist the UAP in turning the client.
• C. Provide instructions on proper bed-making techniques.
• D. Ask the client if they are comfortable.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: The nurse should first place the side rails in an up position. This action is crucial to prevent the client from falling while the bed is being made. Choice B is incorrect as moving or turning the client is not necessary at this point. Choice C is not a priority when immediate safety concerns are present. Choice D, asking the client if they are comfortable, though important, should come after ensuring the client's safety by raising the side rails.

4. A male client notifies the nurse that he feels short of breath and has chest pressure radiating down his left arm. A STAT 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) is obtained and shows ST segment elevation in leads II, III, aVF, and V4R. The nurse collects blood samples and gives a normal saline bolus. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Obtain the results for STAT serum cardiac biomarkers.
• B. Assess for contraindications for thrombolytic therapy.
• C. Measure ST-segment height and waveform changes.
• D. Transfer for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing for contraindications for thrombolytic therapy is crucial as it determines whether the client is a candidate for reperfusion therapy. In this scenario, the client is presenting with symptoms and ECG changes consistent with an acute myocardial infarction (MI). Thrombolytic therapy aims at restoring blood flow to the heart muscle, reducing the size of the infarct. However, it is essential to assess for contraindications such as recent surgery, active bleeding, or a history of stroke to avoid potential complications. Obtaining serum cardiac biomarkers or measuring ST-segment changes are important steps in the diagnosis of MI but are not as time-sensitive as assessing for contraindications to thrombolytic therapy. Transfer for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is a definitive treatment for MI, but assessing for thrombolytic therapy eligibility takes precedence in this acute situation.

5. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later, the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40 mm Hg. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer a second dose of nitroglycerin.
• B. Infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus.
• C. Begin external chest compressions.
• D. Give a PRN antiemetic medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention in this situation is to infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus. The client's drop in blood pressure to 60/40 mm Hg after nitroglycerin administration indicates hypotension, which may suggest a right ventricular infarction. Normal saline bolus helps to increase intravascular volume, improve cardiac output, and support blood pressure. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin would further decrease blood pressure. External chest compressions are not indicated as the client's heart is still beating, and there is no indication for CPR. Giving an antiemetic medication is not the priority in this situation where hypotension is the main concern.

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