HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. The nurse teaches an adolescent male client how to use a metered dose inhaler. What instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Secure the mouthpiece under the tongue.
- B. Press down on the device after breathing in fully.
- C. Move the device one to two inches away from the mouth.
- D. Breathe out slowly and deeply while compressing the device.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for using a metered dose inhaler is to move the device one to two inches away from the mouth. This distance helps ensure effective delivery of the medication directly to the airways. Choice A is incorrect as the mouthpiece should be placed between the lips, not under the tongue. Choice B is incorrect because the device should be pressed down before breathing in, not after. Choice D is wrong because the patient should breathe out fully before using the inhaler, not while compressing the device.
2. After multiple attempts to stop drinking, an adult male is admitted to the medical intensive care unit (MICU) with delirium tremens. He is tachycardic, diaphoretic, restless, and disoriented. Which finding indicates a life-threatening condition?
- A. Widening QRS complexes and flat T waves
- B. Tachycardia and elevated blood pressure
- C. Restlessness and anxiety
- D. Diaphoresis and dehydration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Widening QRS complexes and flat T waves. In the context of an adult male with delirium tremens and symptoms like tachycardia, diaphoresis, restlessness, and disorientation, the presence of widening QRS complexes and flat T waves on an ECG suggests severe electrolyte imbalance, particularly hypokalemia. This severe electrolyte imbalance can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. Tachycardia and elevated blood pressure (choice B) can be expected in delirium tremens but do not directly indicate a life-threatening condition as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do. Restlessness and anxiety (choice C) are common symptoms of delirium tremens but do not specifically signify a life-threatening condition. Diaphoresis and dehydration (choice D) are also common in delirium tremens but do not directly point towards a life-threatening electrolyte imbalance as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do.
3. The charge nurse of the critical care unit informed at the beginning of the shift that a less than optimal number of registered nurses would be working that shift. In planning assignments, which client should receive the most care hours by a registered nurse?
- A. A 34-year-old admitted today after an emergency appendectomy who has a peripheral intravenous catheter and a Foley catheter.
- B. A 48-year-old marathon runner with a central venous catheter experiencing nausea and vomiting due to electrolyte disturbance following a race.
- C. A 63-year-old chain smoker with chronic bronchitis receiving oxygen via nasal cannula and a saline-locked peripheral intravenous catheter.
- D. An 82-year-old client with Alzheimer's disease and a newly fractured femur with a Foley catheter and soft wrist restraints applied.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The 82-year-old client with Alzheimer's disease and a newly fractured femur should receive the most care hours by a registered nurse because they are at the highest risk for injury and complications. The client's age, diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease, and the presence of a newly fractured femur along with the Foley catheter and wrist restraints indicate a need for close monitoring and care. Choice A is less critical as the client is stable post-appendectomy. Choice B, though experiencing symptoms, is not at the same level of risk as the client in Choice D. Choice C, while requiring oxygen support, does not have the same level of acuity and complexity as the client in Choice D.
4. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice and ascites. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Confusion and altered mental status
- C. Yellowing of the skin
- D. Increased abdominal girth
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with cirrhosis presenting with jaundice and ascites, yellowing of the skin (icterus) is the most concerning assessment finding. This indicates significant liver dysfunction and a high level of bilirubin in the blood. Yellowing of the skin suggests a severe impairment of the liver's ability to process bilirubin, which can lead to serious complications. Peripheral edema and increased abdominal girth are common manifestations of cirrhosis but are not as acutely concerning as skin yellowing. Confusion and altered mental status are also critical findings in cirrhosis, indicating hepatic encephalopathy, but skin yellowing is more closely associated with the severity of liver dysfunction in this scenario.
5. The nurse is assessing a client with right-sided heart failure. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Jugular venous distention
- B. Peripheral edema
- C. Crackles in the lungs
- D. Elevated liver enzymes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with right-sided heart failure, crackles in the lungs are the most concerning finding as they indicate pulmonary congestion, which requires immediate intervention. Crackles suggest fluid accumulation in the lungs, leading to impaired gas exchange and potential respiratory distress. Jugular venous distention (Choice A) and peripheral edema (Choice B) are common findings in right-sided heart failure but do not indicate acute deterioration requiring immediate intervention. Elevated liver enzymes (Choice D) may be seen in chronic heart failure but do not warrant immediate action compared to the urgent need to address pulmonary congestion indicated by crackles in the lungs.
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