HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. The nurse teaches an adolescent male client how to use a metered dose inhaler. What instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Secure the mouthpiece under the tongue.
 - B. Press down on the device after breathing in fully.
 - C. Move the device one to two inches away from the mouth.
 - D. Breathe out slowly and deeply while compressing the device.
 
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for using a metered dose inhaler is to move the device one to two inches away from the mouth. This distance helps ensure effective delivery of the medication directly to the airways. Choice A is incorrect as the mouthpiece should be placed between the lips, not under the tongue. Choice B is incorrect because the device should be pressed down before breathing in, not after. Choice D is wrong because the patient should breathe out fully before using the inhaler, not while compressing the device.
2. While performing a skin inspection for a female adult client, the nurse observes a rash that is well circumscribed, has silvery scales and plaques, and is located on the elbows and knees. These assessment findings are likely to indicate which condition?
- A. Tinea corporis
 - B. Herpes zoster
 - C. Psoriasis
 - D. Drug reaction
 
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Psoriasis. Psoriasis commonly presents with well-circumscribed, silvery scales and plaques, typically found on extensor surfaces like elbows and knees. Tinea corporis (A) presents as a circular rash, herpes zoster (B) presents as a painful rash following a dermatomal pattern, and drug reactions (D) have variable presentations not specific to elbows and knees with silvery scales and plaques.
3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which clinical finding is most concerning?
- A. Headache
 - B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
 - C. Elevated liver enzymes
 - D. Peripheral edema
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Headache. In a client with atrial fibrillation taking warfarin (Coumadin), a headache can be indicative of bleeding, which is a serious complication requiring immediate assessment and intervention. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is crucial when on anticoagulant therapy. Choices B, C, and D are not the most concerning. A prothrombin time of 15 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, elevated liver enzymes may indicate liver dysfunction but are not directly related to the medication's side effects, and peripheral edema is not typically associated with warfarin use or atrial fibrillation in this context.
4. A client who has just returned from surgery is shivering uncontrollably. What is the best action for the nurse to take?
- A. Offer the client a warm blanket
 - B. Apply warm blankets and monitor the client's temperature
 - C. Place a warm blanket in the client's bed before transferring the client from the stretcher
 - D. Administer a prescribed muscle relaxant
 
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Applying warm blankets and monitoring the client's temperature is the best action to manage postoperative shivering. Shivering after surgery can be a common response due to factors like exposure to cold, pain, or anesthesia effects. Providing warmth through blankets can help regulate the client's body temperature and alleviate shivering. Monitoring the client's temperature is essential to ensure it returns to a normal range. Option A is not as comprehensive as option B, which includes both providing warmth and monitoring the client. Option C is incorrect as it focuses on preparing the bed rather than addressing the client's immediate need for warmth. Option D is not appropriate without further assessment or prescription for a muscle relaxant to address shivering.
5. After receiving lactulose, a client with hepatic encephalopathy has several loose stools. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Send stool specimen to the lab
 - B. Measure abdominal girth
 - C. Encourage increased fiber in the diet
 - D. Monitor mental status
 
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement after a client with hepatic encephalopathy has loose stools following lactulose administration is to monitor the client's mental status. Lactulose is given to lower serum ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy, and loose stools can be an expected side effect of its use. Monitoring mental status is crucial because changes in mental status, such as confusion or altered level of consciousness, are key indicators of hepatic encephalopathy worsening. Sending a stool specimen to the lab would not be the priority in this situation as loose stools are a known effect of lactulose. Measuring abdominal girth is more relevant for conditions like ascites, not loose stools. Encouraging increased fiber in the diet may be beneficial for constipation but is not the immediate action needed when loose stools occur after lactulose administration.
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