Nursing Elites

1. An older male client with a history of diabetes mellitus, chronic gout, and osteoarthritis comes to the clinic with a bag of medication bottles. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Identify pills in the bag
• B. Review the client's medication schedule
• C. Assess the client's symptoms
• D. Educate the client about proper medication usage

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to identify pills in the bag first. This is essential to ensure the client is taking the correct medications and to prevent any potential medication errors. Reviewing the client's medication schedule (choice B) can come after identifying the pills to cross-reference the medications. Assessing the client's symptoms (choice C) is important but should follow identifying the medications. Educating the client about proper medication usage (choice D) is crucial but should be done after confirming the medications in the bag.

2. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Fever of 100.4°F
• B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
• C. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
• D. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A fever of 100.4°F is a clinical finding that requires immediate intervention in a client with ESRD scheduled for hemodialysis. Fever may indicate an underlying infection, which can be severe in individuals with compromised renal function. Prompt assessment and treatment are essential to prevent worsening of the infection and potential complications. Heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate are also important parameters to monitor in clients with ESRD, but in this scenario, the fever takes precedence due to its potential to indicate a critical condition that requires urgent attention.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
• B. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
• C. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL
• D. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is most concerning in a client with CKD as it indicates severe hyperkalemia, requiring immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Serum sodium levels within the normal range (135 mEq/L) are not immediately concerning. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL may indicate impaired kidney function but does not require immediate intervention for hyperkalemia. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL is within normal limits and does not directly correlate with hyperkalemia in this scenario.

4. A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed
• B. A pelvic exam is also needed before cancer is ruled out
• C. Pap smear evaluation should be continued every six months
• D. One additional negative Pap smear in six months is needed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 60-year-old female client with a family history of ovarian cancer and an abdominal mass, further evaluation involving surgery may be needed to rule out ovarian cancer. The presence of an abdominal mass raises suspicion for a possible malignancy, and a negative Pap smear result does not rule out ovarian cancer. A pelvic exam alone may not provide sufficient information to confirm or rule out ovarian cancer. Continuing Pap smear evaluations every six months or waiting for one additional negative Pap smear in six months is not appropriate in this scenario, as the abdominal mass requires immediate attention and further evaluation.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 640 mg/dl and is unresponsive. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push
• B. Administer IV fluids as prescribed
• C. Check the client's blood glucose level
• D. Prepare the client for immediate dialysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering IV fluids as prescribed is the priority intervention in a client with a blood glucose level of 640 mg/dl and unresponsiveness. Severe hyperglycemia can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, and administering IV fluids can help manage hyperglycemia and prevent further complications. Administering dextrose IV push (Choice A) can exacerbate hyperglycemia in this scenario. Checking the client's blood glucose level (Choice C) is important but not the immediate priority when the client is unresponsive. Immediate dialysis (Choice D) is not indicated as the first intervention for hyperglycemia.

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