Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and is unresponsive. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push
• B. Administer IV fluids as prescribed
• C. Check the client's blood glucose level
• D. Prepare the client for immediate dialysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering IV fluids as prescribed should be the first intervention for a client with diabetes mellitus admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and unresponsive. This intervention is crucial in managing hyperglycemia by helping to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Administering 50% dextrose IV push (Choice A) would worsen hyperglycemia in this scenario. Checking the client's blood glucose level (Choice C) is important but not the priority when dealing with an unresponsive client with severe hyperglycemia. Immediate dialysis preparation (Choice D) is not indicated as the first intervention for hyperglycemia.

2. A client who is post-op day 1 after abdominal surgery reports pain at the incision site. The nurse notes the presence of a small amount of serosanguineous drainage. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

• A. Apply a sterile dressing to the incision.
• B. Reinforce the dressing and document the findings.
• C. Remove the dressing and assess the incision site.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to reinforce the dressing and document the findings. It is important to monitor the incision site closely after surgery, especially when there is a small amount of serosanguineous drainage. Reinforcing the dressing helps maintain cleanliness and pressure on the wound. Documenting the findings is crucial for tracking the client's progress and alerting healthcare providers if necessary. Applying a sterile dressing (Choice A) may not be needed if the current dressing is intact. Removing the dressing (Choice C) can increase the risk of contamination. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is not the first step for minor drainage on post-op day 1.

3. One day after abdominal surgery, an obese client complains of pain and heaviness in the right calf. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Observe for unilateral swelling
• B. Administer pain medication
• C. Elevate the leg and apply a warm compress
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to observe for unilateral swelling. Unilateral swelling could indicate a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a serious complication that requires immediate assessment. Administering pain medication or applying warm compress may not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Notifying the healthcare provider should be done after assessing and identifying the issue of unilateral swelling.

4. An adult female client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) asks the nurse if she can continue taking over-the-counter medications. Which medication provides the greatest threat to this client?

• A. Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox).
• B. Birth control pills.
• C. Cough syrup containing codeine.
• D. Cold medication containing alcohol.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox). In clients with CKD, magnesium can accumulate to toxic levels due to decreased excretion by the kidneys. Therefore, it poses the greatest threat to this client population. Choice B, birth control pills, is not typically contraindicated in CKD. Choice C, cough syrup containing codeine, may require dose adjustments but is not the greatest threat. Choice D, cold medication containing alcohol, is a concern mainly in liver disease, not CKD.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer an IV dose of ciprofloxacin to a client with a urinary tract infection. Which client data requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Serum creatinine of 4.5 mg/dL (398 μmol/L SI)
• B. Temperature of 101.3°F
• C. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
• D. Heart rate of 88 bpm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 4.5 mg/dL indicates severe renal impairment, which requires immediate attention before administering ciprofloxacin. Elevated serum creatinine levels suggest decreased kidney function, and giving ciprofloxacin can further harm the kidneys. Monitoring and addressing renal function are crucial to prevent worsening of renal impairment and potential drug toxicity. The temperature, blood pressure, and heart rate are important parameters to assess, but in this scenario, the priority is to address the severe renal impairment before proceeding with ciprofloxacin administration.

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