Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and is unresponsive. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push
• B. Administer IV fluids as prescribed
• C. Check the client's blood glucose level
• D. Prepare the client for immediate dialysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering IV fluids as prescribed should be the first intervention for a client with diabetes mellitus admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and unresponsive. This intervention is crucial in managing hyperglycemia by helping to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Administering 50% dextrose IV push (Choice A) would worsen hyperglycemia in this scenario. Checking the client's blood glucose level (Choice C) is important but not the priority when dealing with an unresponsive client with severe hyperglycemia. Immediate dialysis preparation (Choice D) is not indicated as the first intervention for hyperglycemia.

2. A male client reports the onset of numbness and tingling in his fingers and around his mouth. Which lab test is important for the nurse to review before contacting the healthcare provider?

• A. Capillary glucose
• B. Urine specific gravity
• C. Serum calcium
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum calcium. Numbness and tingling in the fingers and around the mouth are indicative of hypocalcemia. Serum calcium levels should be reviewed as they play a crucial role in diagnosing and managing hypocalcemia. Option A, capillary glucose, is not relevant to the symptoms described. Option B, urine specific gravity, is not typically used to assess numbness and tingling. Option D, white blood cell count, is unrelated to the symptoms presented by the client.

3. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously to a client, which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Stridor
• B. Nausea
• C. Headache
• D. Pruritus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stridor. Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy breathing sound that indicates a potential airway obstruction, which can be caused by an allergic reaction. This finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse to ensure the client's airway is patent and to prevent respiratory distress. Nausea, headache, and pruritus are potential side effects of ceftriaxone sodium but do not pose immediate life-threatening risks compared to airway obstruction indicated by stridor.

4. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer a second dose of nitroglycerin.
• B. Infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus.
• C. Begin external chest compressions.
• D. Give a PRN antiemetic medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of nausea and a significant drop in blood pressure suggest a potential right ventricular infarction. The appropriate intervention for this situation is to infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus. This fluid resuscitation helps improve cardiac output by increasing preload, which can be beneficial in right ventricular infarction. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin may further lower blood pressure. External chest compressions are not indicated in this case as the client has a pulse. Providing an antiemetic medication does not address the underlying issue of hypotension and potential right ventricular involvement.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery. The client reports pain at the incision site and a small amount of purulent drainage is noted. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

• A. Apply a sterile dressing to the incision.
• B. Reinforce the dressing and document the findings.
• C. Remove the dressing and assess the incision site.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider. Purulent drainage at the incision site is concerning as it may indicate an infection. The healthcare provider needs to be informed promptly to initiate appropriate treatment. Applying a sterile dressing (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of infection. Reinforcing the dressing and documenting findings (Choice B) is important but should be preceded by notifying the healthcare provider. Removing the dressing and assessing the incision site (Choice C) may disturb the area and should be done under the guidance of the healthcare provider.

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