Nursing Elites

1. A female client with ovarian cancer is receiving chemotherapy. Which laboratory result should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. White blood cell count of 2,000/mm³
• B. Platelet count of 100,000/mm³
• C. Hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL
• D. Serum creatinine level of 1.5 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A white blood cell count of 2,000/mm³ is critically low and places the client at high risk for infection, requiring immediate intervention. Neutropenia, a low white blood cell count, is a common side effect of chemotherapy. A decreased white blood cell count compromises the immune system's ability to fight infections, making it a priority to address to prevent serious complications. Platelet count of 100,000/mm³ is relatively low but not as urgent as a severely low white blood cell count. Hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL is within the normal range for females and does not require immediate intervention. Serum creatinine level of 1.5 mg/dL is also within the normal range and does not pose an immediate threat to the client's health.

2. An older male client with a history of diabetes mellitus, chronic gout, and osteoarthritis comes to the clinic with a bag of medication bottles. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Identify pills in the bag
• B. Review the client's medication schedule
• C. Assess the client's symptoms
• D. Educate the client about proper medication usage

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to identify pills in the bag first. This is essential to ensure the client is taking the correct medications and to prevent any potential medication errors. Reviewing the client's medication schedule (choice B) can come after identifying the pills to cross-reference the medications. Assessing the client's symptoms (choice C) is important but should follow identifying the medications. Educating the client about proper medication usage (choice D) is crucial but should be done after confirming the medications in the bag.

3. A 75-year-old female client is admitted to the orthopedic unit following an open reduction and internal fixation of a hip fracture. On the second postoperative day, the client becomes confused and repeatedly asks the nurse where she is. What information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. History of alcohol use
• B. Current medication list
• C. Baseline cognitive status
• D. Family history of dementia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: History of alcohol use. In this scenario, obtaining the history of alcohol use is crucial as it could indicate withdrawal, which might explain the client's confusion. Alcohol withdrawal can lead to symptoms such as confusion, agitation, and disorientation. While knowing the current medication list (choice B) is important for overall patient care, in this case, alcohol withdrawal is a more likely cause of the confusion. Baseline cognitive status (choice C) is valuable for comparison but may not directly explain the sudden confusion. Family history of dementia (choice D) is less relevant in this acute situation compared to the potential immediate impact of alcohol withdrawal.

4. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with hepatic encephalopathy. Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. Serum ammonia level of 100 mcg/dl
• B. Bilirubin level of 3.0 mg/dl
• C. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds
• D. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum ammonia level of 100 mcg/dl is most concerning in a client with hepatic encephalopathy. Elevated serum ammonia levels indicate significant liver dysfunction and an increased risk of worsening encephalopathy. Bilirubin level and prothrombin time are important in assessing liver function, but in the context of hepatic encephalopathy, elevated ammonia levels take precedence as they directly contribute to neurological symptoms. Serum sodium level, though important, is not the primary concern when managing hepatic encephalopathy.

5. A client who received multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse's decision to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medication?

• A. Increased urinary clearance of the multiple medications has produced diuresis and lowered the blood pressure
• B. The antagonistic interaction among the various blood pressure medications has reduced their effectiveness
• C. The additive effect of multiple medications has caused the blood pressure to drop too low.
• D. The synergistic effect of the multiple medications has resulted in drug toxicity and resulting hypotension.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When medications with a similar action are administered, an additive effect occurs that is the sum of the effects of each medication. In this case, several medications that all lower blood pressure, when administered together, resulted in hypotension.

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