Nursing Elites

1. The nurse notes that the only ECG for a 55-year-old male client scheduled for surgery in two hours is dated two years ago. The client reports that he has a history of 'heart trouble,' but has no problems at present. Hospital protocol requires that those over 50 years of age have a recent ECG prior to surgery. What nursing action is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Ask the client to explain what he means by 'heart trouble.'
• B. Call for an ECG to be performed immediately.
• C. Notify surgery that the ECG is over two years old.
• D. Notify the client's surgeon immediately.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is 55 years old with a history of 'heart trouble,' which necessitates a recent ECG before surgery as per hospital policy. The nurse should prioritize patient safety and adhere to the protocol by arranging for an ECG to be performed immediately. Option A is not the best initial action as the focus should be on obtaining the necessary test first. Option C is not the immediate action required, and option D is premature without obtaining the necessary ECG first.

2. A client with cholelithiasis is admitted with jaundice due to obstruction of the common bile duct. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Distended, hard, and rigid abdomen
• B. Clay-colored stool
• C. Radiating sharp pain in the right shoulder
• D. Bile-stained emesis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important finding for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider in a client with cholelithiasis and jaundice due to common bile duct obstruction is a distended, hard, and rigid abdomen. These signs may indicate a possible surgical emergency, such as a complication like gallbladder perforation or peritonitis, which require immediate intervention. Clay-colored stool is associated with obstructive jaundice but does not indicate an acute surgical emergency. Radiating sharp pain in the right shoulder (referred pain from the diaphragm) and bile-stained emesis may also be seen in cholelithiasis but are not as urgent as a distended, hard, and rigid abdomen.

3. A patient is diagnosed with Mycoplasma pneumonia. Which antibiotic will the nurse expect the provider to order to treat this infection?

• A. Azithromycin (Zithromax)
• B. Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
• C. Erythromycin (E-Mycin)
• D. Fidaxomicin (Dificid)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Erythromycin is the drug of choice for treating Mycoplasma pneumonia. Mycoplasma pneumonia is typically sensitive to macrolide antibiotics, with erythromycin being one of the first-line agents. Azithromycin and clarithromycin are also effective in treating Mycoplasma pneumonia, but erythromycin is specifically mentioned as the drug of choice in this context. Fidaxomicin, on the other hand, is not indicated for the treatment of Mycoplasma pneumonia and is primarily used to treat Clostridium difficile infections.

4. A patient presents with severe chest pain radiating to the left arm. Which of the following diagnostic tests is the priority?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• C. Chest X-ray
• D. Serum electrolytes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a patient presenting with severe chest pain radiating to the left arm, the priority diagnostic test is an Electrocardiogram (ECG) to assess for myocardial infarction. An ECG can quickly identify changes indicative of ischemia or infarction, guiding prompt management. A Complete Blood Count (CBC) may provide some information but is not the primary test for evaluating chest pain related to myocardial infarction. A Chest X-ray can be useful in assessing lung pathologies or certain cardiac conditions; however, it does not provide immediate information on myocardial infarction, making it a secondary option in this scenario. Serum electrolytes may become important in later stages but do not offer immediate insights into myocardial infarction. Therefore, they are a lower priority compared to obtaining an ECG for timely diagnosis and intervention.

5. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has been experiencing severe reflux during sleep. Which recommendation by the nurse is most effective to assist the client?

• A. Losing weight.
• B. Decreasing caffeine intake.
• C. Avoiding large meals.
• D. Raising the head of the bed on blocks.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to raise the head of the bed on blocks (reverse Trendelenburg position). This elevation helps reduce reflux by using gravity to keep stomach contents from flowing back into the esophagus during sleep. Losing weight (Choice A) could be beneficial in managing GERD, but it may not be as effective for immediate relief during sleep. Decreasing caffeine intake (Choice B) and avoiding large meals (Choice C) are also valuable recommendations to manage GERD; however, they may not specifically address the issue of reflux during sleep as directly and effectively as elevating the head of the bed.

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