Nursing Elites

1. The nurse notes that the only ECG for a 55-year-old male client scheduled for surgery in two hours is dated two years ago. The client reports that he has a history of 'heart trouble,' but has no problems at present. Hospital protocol requires that those over 50 years of age have a recent ECG prior to surgery. What nursing action is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Ask the client to explain what he means by 'heart trouble.'
• B. Call for an ECG to be performed immediately.
• C. Notify surgery that the ECG is over two years old.
• D. Notify the client's surgeon immediately.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is 55 years old with a history of 'heart trouble,' which necessitates a recent ECG before surgery as per hospital policy. The nurse should prioritize patient safety and adhere to the protocol by arranging for an ECG to be performed immediately. Option A is not the best initial action as the focus should be on obtaining the necessary test first. Option C is not the immediate action required, and option D is premature without obtaining the necessary ECG first.

2. A nursing student is suctioning a client through a tracheostomy tube while a nurse observes. Which action by the student would prompt the nurse to intervene and demonstrate the correct procedure? Select all that apply.

• A. Setting the suction pressure to 60 mm Hg
• B. Applying suction throughout the procedure
• C. Assessing breath sounds before suctioning
• D. Placing the client in a supine position before the procedure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct suction pressure for an adult client with a tracheostomy tube is typically between 80 to 120 mm Hg. Suction should be applied intermittently during catheter withdrawal to avoid damaging the airway. Assessing breath sounds before suctioning is important to ensure the procedure is necessary. Placing the client in a supine position before suctioning can compromise their airway; instead, the head of the bed should be elevated to facilitate proper drainage and reduce the risk of aspiration. Therefore, setting the suction pressure to 60 mm Hg is incorrect and would prompt the nurse to intervene and correct the procedure.

3. The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a patient who will receive oral levofloxacin (Levaquin) to treat pneumonia. The patient takes an oral hypoglycemic medication and uses over-the-counter (OTC) antacids to treat occasional heartburn. The patient reports frequent arthritis pain and takes acetaminophen when needed. Which statement by the nurse is correct when teaching this patient?

• A. You may take antacids with levofloxacin to decrease gastrointestinal upset.
• B. You may take nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications (NSAIDs) for arthritis pain.
• C. You should monitor your serum glucose more closely while taking levofloxacin.
• D. You should take levofloxacin on an empty stomach to improve absorption.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Levofloxacin may increase the effects of oral hypoglycemic medications, so patients taking these should be advised to monitor their serum glucose levels closely.

4. The healthcare professional is reviewing a patient’s chart prior to administering gentamicin (Garamycin) and notes that the last serum peak drug level was 9 mcg/mL and the last trough level was 2 mcg/mL. What action will the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the next dose as prescribed.
• B. Obtain repeat peak and trough levels before administering the next dose.
• C. Report potential drug toxicity to the patient’s healthcare provider.
• D. Notify the patient’s healthcare provider of decreased drug therapeutic level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Gentamicin peak levels should ideally be between 5 to 8 mcg/mL, and trough levels should be within the range of 0.5 to 2 mcg/mL to ensure therapeutic efficacy while minimizing toxicity risk. In this case, the patient's peak level is above the recommended range, and the trough level is at the higher end, indicating potential drug toxicity. Therefore, the correct action for the healthcare professional is to report the possibility of drug toxicity to the patient’s healthcare provider. Administering the next dose as prescribed (Choice A) would exacerbate the toxicity risk. Obtaining repeat peak and trough levels (Choice B) may confirm the current levels but does not address the immediate concern of potential toxicity. Reporting a decreased drug therapeutic level (Choice D) is not the priority in this scenario, as the focus should be on addressing the potential toxicity issue.

5. The nurse is preparing to begin a medication regimen for a patient who will receive intravenous ampicillin and gentamicin. Which is an important nursing action?

• A. Administer each antibiotic to infuse over 15 to 20 minutes.
• B. Order serum peak and trough levels of ampicillin.
• C. Prepare the schedule so that the drugs are given at the same time.
• D. Set up separate tubing sets for each drug labeled with the drug name and date.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When administering intravenous aminoglycosides like gentamicin with penicillins such as ampicillin, it is crucial to avoid mixing them in the same container. Separate tubing sets labeled with the drug name and date should be used to prevent interactions between the medications. Administering each antibiotic over 15 to 20 minutes (Choice A) may not be appropriate for all medications and does not address the issue of compatibility. Ordering serum peak and trough levels of ampicillin (Choice B) is important for monitoring drug levels but does not directly address the administration process. Preparing a schedule to give drugs simultaneously (Choice C) may increase the risk of drug interactions and is not recommended when administering incompatible medications.

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