Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). The nurse should assess the client for which of the following complications?

• A. Hypertension.
• B. Hypotension.
• C. Hyperglycemia.
• D. Edema.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Epoetin alfa (Epogen) is known to increase blood pressure by stimulating red blood cell production. Monitoring for hypertension is crucial to prevent complications such as heart failure or stroke. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypotension, hyperglycemia, and edema are not typically associated with epoetin alfa therapy in clients with chronic renal failure.

2. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a patient with left-sided heart failure?

• A. Administering IV fluids.
• B. Administering oxygen.
• C. Administering diuretics.
• D. Administering antihypertensives.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with left-sided heart failure because it helps improve oxygenation. In left-sided heart failure, the heart struggles to pump oxygen-rich blood to the body, leading to inadequate oxygen supply to tissues. Administering oxygen can help alleviate symptoms of hypoxia and reduce the workload on the heart. IV fluids (Choice A) may exacerbate heart failure by increasing fluid volume, diuretics (Choice C) are used to reduce fluid overload in heart failure, and antihypertensives (Choice D) are more suitable for managing hypertension, which may be a comorbidity in heart failure but are not the primary intervention for left-sided heart failure.

3. A client is recovering from a closed percutaneous kidney biopsy and reports increased pain from 3 to 10 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Reposition the client on the operative side.
• B. Administer the prescribed opioid analgesic.
• C. Assess the pulse rate and blood pressure.
• D. Examine the color of the client’s urine.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An abrupt increase in pain following a percutaneous kidney biopsy may indicate internal hemorrhage. Assessing the client's pulse rate and blood pressure is crucial as changes in vital signs can be indicative of hemorrhage. This assessment is essential in determining the client's hemodynamic status and the need for immediate intervention. Repositioning the client, administering pain medication, or checking urine color are not the priority actions in this situation and may delay necessary interventions for potential hemorrhage.

4. A serum phenytoin determination is prescribed for a client with a seizure disorder who is taking phenytoin (Dilantin). Which result indicates that the prescribed dose of phenytoin is therapeutic?

• A. 3 mcg/mL
• B. 8 mcg/mL
• C. 16 mcg/mL
• D. 28 mcg/mL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 16 mcg/mL (Choice C). The therapeutic serum phenytoin range is typically 10 to 20 mcg/mL. A level below this range may lead to continued seizure activity, indicating subtherapeutic levels. Choices A, B, and D are below the therapeutic range and would not be considered therapeutic for a client with a seizure disorder on phenytoin therapy.

5. A client with a diagnosis of hypothermia is being admitted to the hospital by a nurse. Which of the following signs does the nurse anticipate that this client will exhibit?

• A. Increased heart rate and increased blood pressure
• B. Increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure
• C. Decreased heart rate and increased blood pressure
• D. Decreased heart rate and decreased blood pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hypothermia decreases the heart rate and blood pressure due to reduced metabolic needs of the body. With lower metabolic demands, the heart's workload decreases, leading to reductions in both heart rate and blood pressure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because hypothermia typically results in a decrease in heart rate and blood pressure, not an increase.

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