a 67 year old woman who lives alone tripped on a rug in her home and fractured her hip which predisposing factor probably led to the fracture in the p a 67 year old woman who lives alone tripped on a rug in her home and fractured her hip which predisposing factor probably led to the fracture in the p
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HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet

1. What most likely led to the 67-year-old woman who lives alone tripping on a rug in her home and fracturing her hip?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Osteoporosis, caused by hormonal changes in later life, is the most likely predisposing factor for the fracture in the proximal end of her femur. Osteoporosis leads to reduced bone density, making bones more fragile and susceptible to fractures, especially in the elderly. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to directly lead to a hip fracture in this scenario. Failing eyesight (choice A) could contribute to the fall but is not the main predisposing factor for the fracture. Renal osteodystrophy (choice B) and cardiovascular changes (choice D) are less commonly associated with hip fractures compared to osteoporosis in elderly women.

2. An 80-year-old client is given morphine sulfate for postoperative pain. Which concomitant medication should the nurse question that poses a potential development of urinary retention in this geriatric client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tricyclic antidepressants. Drugs with anticholinergic properties, such as tricyclic antidepressants, can exacerbate urinary retention associated with opioids in older clients. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents (Choice A) do not typically cause urinary retention. Antihistamines (Choice B) may cause urinary retention but are not the primary concern in this scenario. Antibiotics (Choice D) are not associated with an increased risk of urinary retention compared to tricyclic antidepressants.

3. When measuring vital signs, the healthcare provider observes that a client is using accessory neck muscles during respirations. What follow-up action should the healthcare provider take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Observing a client using accessory neck muscles during respiration indicates respiratory distress. The priority action should be to measure oxygen saturation to assess the adequacy of oxygenation. This intervention provides crucial information about the client's respiratory status and helps guide further assessment and interventions.

4. A client with peripheral vascular disease reports leg pain while walking. What intervention is most effective for the nurse to recommend?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage the client to increase walking distance gradually. This intervention is effective because gradual increases in walking distance promote circulation, improve oxygen delivery to tissues, and help reduce leg pain caused by peripheral vascular disease. Elevating the legs above the heart (Choice A) may be beneficial in other conditions like venous insufficiency but not specifically for peripheral vascular disease. Encouraging the client to avoid sitting or standing for long periods (Choice C) can help prevent blood pooling but does not directly address the walking-induced leg pain. Instructing the client to use warm compresses for pain relief (Choice D) may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying circulation issues associated with peripheral vascular disease.

5. Menopausal women require a diet rich in calcium to prevent osteoporosis. Which one of the following is a source of calcium?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spinach is a good source of calcium, which is crucial for preventing osteoporosis in menopausal women. Spinach is a leafy green vegetable high in calcium content. While cabbage, carrots, and rape are nutritious, they do not provide as much calcium as spinach does. Therefore, spinach is the correct choice for menopausal women looking to increase their calcium intake.

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