Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled to have an arteriogram. During the arteriogram, the client reports having nausea, tingling, and dyspnea. The nurse's immediate action should be to:

• A. Administer epinephrine.
• B. Inform the physician.
• C. Administer oxygen.
• D. Inform the client that the procedure is almost over.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct immediate action for the nurse to take in this situation is to inform the physician. The symptoms described - nausea, tingling, and dyspnea - indicate a potential allergic reaction to the contrast dye used in the arteriogram. It is crucial to notify the physician promptly so that further assessment and appropriate interventions can be initiated. Administering epinephrine without physician guidance can be dangerous as the physician needs to evaluate the severity of the reaction and determine the necessary treatment. Administering oxygen may be needed but should be done under the physician's direction. Informing the client that the procedure is almost over is not a priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of a possible allergic reaction.

2. Alteplase recombinant, or tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), a thrombolytic enzyme, is administered during the first 6 hours after onset of myocardial infarction (MI) to:

• A. Control chest pain.
• B. Reduce coronary artery vasospasm.
• C. Control the arrhythmias associated with MI.
• D. Revascularize the blocked coronary artery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Alteplase recombinant, or t-PA, is a thrombolytic enzyme used to dissolve clots and revascularize the blocked coronary artery in patients experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI). Administering t-PA within the first 6 hours of MI onset is crucial to restore blood flow to the affected area and minimize cardiac tissue damage. Therefore, the correct answer is to revascularize the blocked coronary artery. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while controlling chest pain, reducing coronary artery vasospasm, and managing arrhythmias are important goals in managing MI, the primary purpose of administering t-PA within the first 6 hours is to restore blood flow by dissolving clots and revascularizing the blocked coronary artery.

3. A client with Herpes Zoster (shingles) on the thorax tells the nurse about having difficulty sleeping. What is the probable cause of this problem?

• A. Frequent cough
• B. Pain
• C. Nocturia
• D. Dyspnea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pain. Pain is a common and significant symptom of Herpes Zoster (shingles) that can result in difficulty sleeping. The pain associated with shingles can be intense and persistent, making it challenging for the client to find a comfortable position to sleep. Nocturia (choice C), which is excessive urination during the night, is not directly related to difficulty sleeping in this context. While both frequent cough (choice A) and dyspnea (choice D) can cause sleep disturbances, in a client with Herpes Zoster on the thorax, pain is the most probable cause of sleep difficulty.

4. While assessing a female client who is chronically fatigued and was recently diagnosed with adrenal insufficiency, the client tells the nurse that she is very nervous that her hospitalization will cause her to lose her job. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Teach the client about the risk for infection.
• B. Offer support and care measures to reduce anxiety and stress.
• C. Encourage the client to rest quietly to reduce fatigue.
• D. Place a referral to social services to discuss financial options.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority intervention for the nurse is to offer support and care measures to reduce anxiety and stress. Addressing the client's emotional distress is crucial as the stress can exacerbate adrenal insufficiency. While teaching the client about the risk for infection (Choice A) is important, addressing the immediate emotional needs takes precedence. Encouraging the client to rest quietly (Choice C) is beneficial but does not directly address the client's current distress about job loss. Referring the client to social services (Choice D) for financial options is important, but at this moment, addressing the client's anxiety is the priority to promote emotional well-being.

5. What is the correct procedure for performing an ophthalmoscopic examination on a client's right retina?

• A. Instruct the client to focus on a distant object behind the examiner and not move their eyes during the exam.
• B. Set the ophthalmoscope on the plus 2 to 3 lens and hold it in front of the examiner's right eye.
• C. From a distance of 12 to 15 inches and slightly to the side, shine the light into the client's pupil.
• D. For optimal visualization, keep the ophthalmoscope at least 3 inches from the client's eye.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During an ophthalmoscopic examination, the client should focus on a distant object behind the examiner to dilate the pupil, and the examiner should stand at a distance of 12-15 inches away and slightly to the side. This angle allows for better visualization of the retina. Holding the ophthalmoscope firmly against the examiner's face and shining the light into the client's pupil helps examine the retina effectively. Choice A is incorrect because the client should look at a distant object, not the examiner's nose. Choice B is incorrect as the ophthalmoscope should be directed towards the client's eye, not the examiner's eye. Choice D is incorrect because keeping the ophthalmoscope at least 3 inches away may not provide an optimal view of the retina.

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