Nursing Elites

1. A client with overflow incontinence needs assistance with elimination. What intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Stroke the medial aspect of the thigh.
• B. Use intermittent catheterization.
• C. Provide digital anal stimulation.
• D. Use the Valsalva maneuver.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with overflow incontinence, the voiding reflex arc is impaired. The Valsalva maneuver, which involves holding the breath and bearing down as if to defecate, can help initiate voiding by applying mechanical pressure. Options A and C (stroking the thigh or anal stimulation) rely on an intact reflex arc to trigger elimination and are not effective for clients with overflow incontinence. Intermittent catheterization (Option B) is a last resort due to the high risk of infection and should only be considered if other interventions fail.

2. A patient is diagnosed with Mycoplasma pneumonia. Which antibiotic will the nurse expect the provider to order to treat this infection?

• A. Azithromycin (Zithromax)
• B. Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
• C. Erythromycin (E-Mycin)
• D. Fidaxomicin (Dificid)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Erythromycin is the drug of choice for treating Mycoplasma pneumonia. Mycoplasma pneumonia is typically sensitive to macrolide antibiotics, with erythromycin being one of the first-line agents. Azithromycin and clarithromycin are also effective in treating Mycoplasma pneumonia, but erythromycin is specifically mentioned as the drug of choice in this context. Fidaxomicin, on the other hand, is not indicated for the treatment of Mycoplasma pneumonia and is primarily used to treat Clostridium difficile infections.

3. A 49-year-old female client arrives at the clinic for an annual exam and asks the nurse why she becomes excessively diaphoretic and feels warm during nighttime. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Explain the effects of follicle-stimulating and luteinizing hormones.
• B. Discuss perimenopause and related comfort measures.
• C. Assess lung fields and check for a cough productive of blood-tinged mucus.
• D. Inquire if a fever above 101°F (38.3°C) has occurred in the last 24 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The symptoms described by the client, excessive diaphoresis and feeling warm at night, are characteristic of perimenopause. During this period, lower estrogen levels lead to surges in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), resulting in vasomotor instability, night sweats, and hot flashes. Therefore, discussing perimenopause and related comfort measures with the client is essential to provide education and support. Choice A is incorrect because explaining the effects of FSH and LH alone does not directly address the client's current symptoms. Choice C is irrelevant as it focuses on assessing lung fields and cough symptoms, which are not related to the client's menopausal symptoms. Choice D is not the best response as it is more focused on ruling out fever as a cause, which is not typically associated with the symptoms described by the client.

4. A client with cirrhosis develops increasing pedal edema and ascites. What dietary modification is most important for the nurse to teach this client?

• A. Avoid high carbohydrate foods.
• B. Decrease intake of fat-soluble vitamins.
• C. Decrease caloric intake.
• D. Restrict salt and fluid intake.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to restrict salt and fluid intake. In clients with cirrhosis presenting with pedal edema and ascites, excessive fluid retention occurs, necessitating the restriction of salt and fluid to alleviate these symptoms. Choice A, avoiding high carbohydrate foods, is not the priority in this situation. Decreasing intake of fat-soluble vitamins (Choice B) is not specifically indicated for managing edema and ascites in cirrhosis. While maintaining an appropriate caloric intake is important, decreasing caloric intake (Choice C) is not the primary focus when addressing fluid retention in cirrhosis.

5. What is the most common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

• A. Escherichia coli infection
• B. Staphylococcus aureus infection
• C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection
• D. Klebsiella pneumoniae infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Escherichia coli is the most common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs). It is responsible for the majority of UTIs, especially in women. E. coli is a normal inhabitant of the bowel and can enter the urinary tract through the urethra, leading to infection. Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Klebsiella pneumoniae are less common causes of UTIs compared to E. coli. Staphylococcus aureus typically causes skin and soft tissue infections, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is more commonly associated with healthcare-associated infections, and Klebsiella pneumoniae is known for causing pneumonia and other respiratory infections.

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