Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider notes on the fetal monitor that a laboring client has a variable deceleration. Which action should the healthcare provider implement first?

• A. Assess cervical dilation.
• B. Change the client's position.
• C. Administer oxygen via facemask.
• D. Turn off the oxytocin infusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Changing the client's position is the priority intervention for variable decelerations as it can relieve pressure on the umbilical cord, potentially resolving the deceleration and improving fetal oxygenation. Assessing cervical dilation, administering oxygen via facemask, and turning off the oxytocin infusion are important interventions but addressing the fetal distress caused by variable decelerations takes precedence.

2. A client at 32-weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia. Which assessment finding is most indicative of an impending convulsion?

• A. 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia.
• B. Periorbital edema, flashing lights, and aura.
• C. Epigastric pain in the third trimester.
• D. Recent decreased urinary output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia, 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia are indicative of severe preeclampsia. These neurological signs suggest an increased risk for seizures, making option A the most indicative of an impending convulsion. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with an impending convulsion in a client with preeclampsia.

3. When counseling a couple seeking information about conceiving, the LPN/LVN should know that ovulation usually occurs

• A. two weeks before menstruation.
• B. immediately after menstruation.
• C. immediately before menstruation.
• D. three weeks before menstruation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ovulation typically occurs about 14 days before the start of the next menstrual period. This timing allows for the released egg to travel down the fallopian tube where it may be fertilized by sperm, leading to conception. Understanding the timing of ovulation is crucial for couples trying to conceive to increase their chances of success.

4. Immediately after birth, a newborn infant is suctioned, dried, and placed under a radiant warmer. The infant has spontaneous respirations, and the nurse assesses an apical heart rate of 80 beats/minute and respirations of 20 breaths/minute. What action should the nurse take next?

• A. Initiate positive pressure ventilation.
• B. Intervene after the one-minute Apgar assessment.
• C. Initiate CPR on the infant.
• D. Assess the infant's blood glucose level.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate below 100 bpm in a newborn indicates bradycardia and requires intervention. Positive pressure ventilation should be initiated to improve oxygenation and help increase the infant's heart rate. This intervention is crucial to support the newborn's transition to extrauterine life and prevent further complications.

5. A new mother asks the LPN/LVN, 'How do I know that my daughter is getting enough breast milk?' Which explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. Weigh the baby daily, and if she is gaining weight, she is eating enough.
• B. Your milk is sufficient if the baby is voiding pale straw-colored urine 6 to 10 times a day.
• C. Offer the baby extra bottle milk after her feeding, and see if she is still hungry.
• D. If you're concerned, you might consider bottle feeding so that you can monitor her intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Adequate voiding is a sign that the baby is receiving enough milk. Pale straw-colored urine 6 to 10 times a day indicates proper hydration and nutrition. This is a reliable indicator of adequate breast milk intake for the infant. Choice A is incorrect because weight gain alone may not always indicate sufficient milk intake. Choice C is incorrect because supplementing with bottle milk can interfere with establishing breastfeeding. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests switching to bottle feeding, which is not necessary if the baby is latching and voiding well.

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