Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider notes on the fetal monitor that a laboring client has a variable deceleration. Which action should the healthcare provider implement first?

• A. Assess cervical dilation.
• B. Change the client's position.
• C. Administer oxygen via facemask.
• D. Turn off the oxytocin infusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Changing the client's position is the priority intervention for variable decelerations as it can relieve pressure on the umbilical cord, potentially resolving the deceleration and improving fetal oxygenation. Assessing cervical dilation, administering oxygen via facemask, and turning off the oxytocin infusion are important interventions but addressing the fetal distress caused by variable decelerations takes precedence.

2. During a newborn assessment, which symptom would indicate respiratory distress if present in a newborn?

• A. Flaring of the nares.
• B. Shallow and irregular respirations.
• C. Respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute.
• D. Abdominal breathing with synchronous chest movement.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flaring of the nares is a classic sign of respiratory distress in newborns. It indicates that the newborn is working hard to breathe, and immediate attention should be given to assess and address the respiratory status of the infant.

3. A client who is 32 weeks' gestation comes to the women's health clinic and reports nausea and vomiting. On examination, the nurse notes that the client has an elevated blood pressure. Which action should the nurse implement next?

• A. Inspect the client's face for edema.
• B. Ascertain the frequency of headaches.
• C. Evaluate for a history of cluster headaches.
• D. Observe and time the client's contractions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Inspecting the client's face for edema is crucial to assess for preeclampsia, a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure during pregnancy. Edema, particularly facial edema, can be a significant indicator of preeclampsia, prompting the need for further evaluation and management to ensure the well-being of both the client and the unborn child.

4. At 20 weeks gestation, a client is scheduled for an ultrasound. In preparing the client for the procedure, the nurse should explain that the primary reason for conducting this diagnostic study is to obtain which information?

• A. Sex and size of the fetus.
• B. Chromosomal abnormalities.
• C. Fetal growth and gestational age.
• D. Lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary reason for an ultrasound at 20 weeks gestation is to assess fetal growth, gestational age, and anatomical development. This evaluation helps ensure the fetus is developing appropriately and can detect any potential issues that may require intervention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because at 20 weeks, the primary focus of the ultrasound is not to determine the sex of the fetus, detect chromosomal abnormalities, or assess the lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio. While these factors may be evaluated in pregnancy, they are not the primary reasons for an ultrasound at 20 weeks gestation.

5. When teaching a gravid client how to perform kick (fetal movement) counts, which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. If 10 kicks are not felt within one hour, drink orange juice and count for another hour.
• B. Count the movements once daily, for one hour, before breakfast.
• C. Avoid caffeinated drinks for 24 hours before conducting the kick test.
• D. Exercise for 15 minutes before starting the counting to help increase fetal movement.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When teaching a gravid client about kick (fetal movement) counts, the nurse should instruct them that if 10 kicks are not felt within one hour, they should drink orange juice and continue counting for another hour. This instruction is crucial as a drop in fetal movements could indicate potential issues with fetal well-being, and taking action such as rechecking after food intake is recommended to monitor the situation closely.

Similar Questions