Nursing Elites

1. After two miscarriages, a client is instructed to increase her daily intake of foods that include folic acid. The client does not like green leafy vegetables and states she is allergic to soy. Which food should the nurse suggest that the client eat to obtain folic acid?

• A. Strawberries.
• B. Yogurt.
• C. Collard greens.
• D. Whole milk.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Collard greens are a good source of folic acid, which is important for preventing neural tube defects, especially in clients with a history of miscarriages. Since the client does not like green leafy vegetables, collard greens could be suggested as an alternative source of folic acid. Yogurt and whole milk do not contain significant amounts of folic acid, and while strawberries are a healthy choice, they are not a high source of folic acid compared to collard greens.

2. The healthcare provider prescribes magnesium sulfate 6 grams intravenously (IV) to be infused over 20 minutes for a client with preterm labor. The IV bag contains magnesium sulfate 20 grams in dextrose 5% in water 500 mL. How many mL/hour should the nurse set the infusion pump?

• A. 150 mL/hour
• B. 250 mL/hour
• C. 50 mL/hour
• D. 275 mL/hour

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, first, determine the total volume to be infused (6 grams of magnesium sulfate) over a specific time frame (20 minutes). Then, calculate the concentration of magnesium sulfate in the IV bag to determine the mL/hour rate. The IV bag contains 20 grams of magnesium sulfate in 500 mL of solution, which means there are 4 grams of magnesium sulfate per 100 mL. Since 6 grams are required, the nurse should set the pump to deliver 150 mL/hour to infuse the prescribed dose over 20 minutes. Choice B, 250 mL/hour, is incorrect because it miscalculates the amount of magnesium sulfate infused per hour. Choice C, 50 mL/hour, is incorrect as it is too slow to deliver the required dose in the specified time frame. Choice D, 275 mL/hour, is incorrect as it overestimates the infusion rate and would deliver the dose too quickly.

3. To confirm respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) in a newborn, what should the nurse assess?

• A. Assess diaphragmatic breathing.
• B. Assess heart sounds.
• C. Monitor blood oxygen levels.
• D. Check for signs of infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To confirm respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) in a newborn, the nurse should assess diaphragmatic breathing. In RDS, the baby may have difficulty breathing due to immature lungs, leading to shallow, rapid breathing movements. Assessing diaphragmatic breathing directly evaluates the respiratory effort and can help identify the presence of RDS. Choice B, assessing heart sounds, is not specific to diagnosing RDS but could be relevant for other conditions. Choice C, monitoring blood oxygen levels, is important but alone may not confirm RDS. Choice D, checking for signs of infection, is not a direct indicator of RDS but rather suggests a different issue.

4. During a woman's first prenatal visit, the nurse reviews her health care record, noting a history of chickenpox as a child and syphilis as a teenager. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?

• A. Obtain blood and urine for prenatal screens.
• B. Schedule prenatal visits to occur monthly.
• C. Explain common complications of pregnancy.
• D. Obtain baseline blood pressure and weight.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Obtaining blood and urine for prenatal screens is crucial in identifying any potential infections or conditions that may require monitoring throughout the pregnancy. Screening for infections such as syphilis is essential to ensure appropriate management and prevent adverse outcomes. This action helps in early detection and timely intervention, promoting the health and well-being of both the mother and the developing fetus. The other options, while important during prenatal care, are not as critical as obtaining prenatal screens to assess for any existing infections that could impact the pregnancy.

5. At 40 weeks gestation, a client presents to the obstetrical floor with spontaneous rupture of amniotic membranes at home and is in active labor. The client feels the need to bear down and push. What information is most important for the nurse to obtain first?

• A. Estimated amount of fluid.
• B. Any odor noted when membranes ruptured.
• C. Color and consistency of fluid.
• D. Time the membranes ruptured.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The color and consistency of the amniotic fluid are crucial to assess as they can provide valuable information about the presence of meconium, which may indicate fetal distress. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid can lead to complications such as meconium aspiration syndrome in the newborn. Therefore, assessing the color and consistency of the amniotic fluid is the priority in this situation to ensure timely interventions if needed. Estimated amount of fluid (Choice A) may be important but not as critical as assessing for meconium. Any odor noted when membranes ruptured (Choice B) is less relevant compared to assessing for meconium. Knowing the time the membranes ruptured (Choice D) is important but does not take precedence over assessing for fetal distress indicated by meconium presence.

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