Nursing Elites

1. When counseling a couple seeking information about conceiving, the LPN/LVN should know that ovulation usually occurs

• A. two weeks before menstruation.
• B. immediately after menstruation.
• C. immediately before menstruation.
• D. three weeks before menstruation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ovulation typically occurs about 14 days before the start of the next menstrual period. This timing allows for the released egg to travel down the fallopian tube where it may be fertilized by sperm, leading to conception. Understanding the timing of ovulation is crucial for couples trying to conceive to increase their chances of success.

2. During a prenatal visit, the LPN/LVN discusses with a client the effects of smoking on the fetus. When compared with nonsmokers, mothers who smoke during pregnancy tend to produce infants who have

• A. lower Apgar scores.
• B. lower birth weights.
• C. respiratory distress.
• D. a higher rate of congenital anomalies.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When mothers smoke during pregnancy, it is associated with intrauterine growth restriction, which leads to lower birth weights in infants. Maternal smoking can restrict the flow of oxygen and nutrients to the fetus, affecting its growth and development. This can result in babies being born with lower birth weights, which can have various health implications for the newborn. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as smoking during pregnancy is primarily linked to intrauterine growth restriction and lower birth weights in infants, rather than lower Apgar scores, respiratory distress, or a higher rate of congenital anomalies.

3. A young girl with a fractured radius has a cast applied. As the cast is drying, it is elevated above the level of her heart. Which assessment finding should the healthcare provider be reported to immediately?

• A. Itching sensation under the cast.
• B. Swelling of fingers with brisk capillary refill.
• C. Numbness and inability to move fingers.
• D. Visible bruising above the cast.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Numbness and inability to move fingers are concerning findings that suggest potential nerve damage or compartment syndrome due to increased pressure within the cast. This requires immediate notification of the healthcare provider to prevent further complications or permanent damage.

4. A multiparous client with active herpes lesions is admitted to the unit with spontaneous rupture of membranes. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain blood culture.
• B. Administer penicillin.
• C. Cover lesion with a dressing.
• D. Prepare her for cesarean section.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Active herpes lesions at the time of delivery increase the risk of neonatal transmission. The most appropriate action in this scenario is to prepare the client for a cesarean section. A cesarean section is often recommended to reduce the risk of neonatal transmission of herpes simplex virus during delivery, especially when active lesions are present. This intervention helps minimize direct contact between the newborn and the infected genital tract secretions, thereby decreasing the risk of transmission.

5. What is the priority nursing assessment immediately following the birth of an infant with esophageal atresia and a tracheoesophageal (TE) fistula?

• A. Body temperature.
• B. Level of pain.
• C. Time of first void.
• D. Number of vessels in the cord.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority nursing assessment immediately following the birth of an infant with esophageal atresia and a tracheoesophageal (TE) fistula is to check the number of vessels in the cord. This assessment is crucial to identify any potential anomalies related to the TE fistula, as abnormalities in the cord vessels may indicate associated congenital anomalies that need immediate attention.

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