Nursing Elites

1. When counseling a couple seeking information about conceiving, the LPN/LVN should know that ovulation usually occurs

• A. two weeks before menstruation.
• B. immediately after menstruation.
• C. immediately before menstruation.
• D. three weeks before menstruation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ovulation typically occurs about 14 days before the start of the next menstrual period. This timing allows for the released egg to travel down the fallopian tube where it may be fertilized by sperm, leading to conception. Understanding the timing of ovulation is crucial for couples trying to conceive to increase their chances of success.

2. A pregnant woman comes to the prenatal clinic for an initial visit. In reviewing her childbearing history, the client indicates that she has delivered premature twins, one full-term baby, and has had no abortions. Which GTPAL should the LPN/LVN document in this client's record?

• A. 3-1-2-0-3.
• B. 4-1-2-0-3.
• C. 2-1-2-1-2.
• D. 3-1-1-0-3.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct GTPAL for this client is 3-1-1-0-3. G (Gravida) is 3, indicating a total of 3 pregnancies. T (Term) is 1, representing 1 full-term delivery. P (Preterm) is 1, not 2 as mentioned in the question, as twins count as one pregnancy event. A (Abortions) is 0, and L (Living) is 3, indicating 3 living children (twins count as 1). Therefore, the correct answer is 3-1-1-0-3.

3. The LPN/LVN should explain to a 30-year-old gravida client that alpha fetoprotein testing is recommended for which purpose?

• A. Detect cardiovascular disorders.
• B. Screen for neural tube defects.
• C. Monitor placental functioning.
• D. Assess for maternal pre-eclampsia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Screen for neural tube defects. Alpha fetoprotein testing is primarily used to screen for neural tube defects and other fetal abnormalities. It is not used to detect cardiovascular disorders, monitor placental functioning, or assess for maternal pre-eclampsia.

4. Immediately after birth, a newborn infant is suctioned, dried, and placed under a radiant warmer. The infant has spontaneous respirations, and the nurse assesses an apical heart rate of 80 beats/minute and respirations of 20 breaths/minute. What action should the nurse take next?

• A. Initiate positive pressure ventilation.
• B. Intervene after the one-minute Apgar assessment.
• C. Initiate CPR on the infant.
• D. Assess the infant's blood glucose level.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate below 100 bpm in a newborn indicates bradycardia and requires intervention. Positive pressure ventilation should be initiated to improve oxygenation and help increase the infant's heart rate. This intervention is crucial to support the newborn's transition to extrauterine life and prevent further complications.

5. A 38-week primigravida who works at a desk job and sits at a computer for 8 hours each day tells the nurse that her feet have begun to swell. Which instruction would be most effective in preventing pooling of blood in the lower extremities?

• A. Wear support stockings.
• B. Reduce salt in her diet.
• C. Move about every hour.
• D. Avoid constrictive clothing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During pregnancy, especially in the third trimester, it is common for women to experience swelling due to decreased circulation. Encouraging the patient to move about every hour helps prevent blood pooling in the lower extremities by promoting circulation. This simple activity can help alleviate swelling and discomfort associated with prolonged sitting.

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