Nursing Elites

1. When can a woman who thinks she may be pregnant use a home pregnancy test to diagnose pregnancy?

• A. A home pregnancy test can be used right after your first missed period.
• B. These tests are most accurate after you have missed your second period.
• C. Home pregnancy tests often give false positives and should not be trusted.
• D. The test can provide accurate information when used right after ovulation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Home pregnancy tests detect hCG, a hormone produced during pregnancy, and are most accurate after the first missed period when hCG levels are higher. Testing too early may result in a false negative. Waiting until after the first missed period increases the reliability of the test results. Choice B is incorrect as waiting until after the second missed period is unnecessary and may delay seeking appropriate healthcare. Choice C is incorrect as home pregnancy tests are generally reliable when used correctly. Choice D is incorrect because ovulation occurs before the period, and testing immediately after ovulation may not provide accurate results.

2. The healthcare provider is preparing to give an enema to a laboring client. Which client requires the most caution when carrying out this procedure?

• A. A gravida 6, para 5 who is 38 years of age and in early labor.
• B. A 37-week primigravida who presents at 100% effacement, 3 cm cervical dilation, and a -1 station.
• C. A gravida 2, para 1 who is at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station admitted for induction of labor due to postdates.
• D. A 40-week primigravida who is at 6 cm cervical dilation and the presenting part is not engaged.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client at 40 weeks of gestation with a 6 cm cervical dilation and a presenting part that is not engaged requires the most caution during an enema procedure. An unengaged presenting part increases the risk of cord prolapse, which can be a serious complication during the procedure. This situation demands careful attention to prevent potential complications and ensure the safety of the client and fetus. Choice A is incorrect as being in early labor does not pose the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice B describes a client at 37 weeks with signs of early labor but does not indicate the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice C involves a client at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station with no mention of an unengaged presenting part, making it a less critical situation compared to an unengaged presentation, as in Choice D.

3. At 14-weeks gestation, a client arrives at the Emergency Center complaining of a dull pain in the right lower quadrant of her abdomen. The LPN/LVN obtains a blood sample and initiates an IV. Thirty minutes after admission, the client reports feeling a sharp abdominal pain and shoulder pain. Assessment findings include diaphoresis, a heart rate of 120 beats/minute, and a blood pressure of 86/48. Which action should the nurse implement next?

• A. Check the hematocrit results.
• B. Administer pain medication.
• C. Increase the rate of IV fluids.
• D. Monitor the client for contractions.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client's symptoms suggest hypovolemic shock, possibly due to an ectopic pregnancy. Increasing IV fluids is crucial to stabilize the client by improving blood pressure and perfusion. This intervention helps address the underlying issue of hypovolemia and supports the client's hemodynamic status, which takes priority in this emergent situation.

4. After each feeding, a 3-day-old newborn is spitting up large amounts of Enfamil® Newborn Formula, a nonfat cow's milk formula. The pediatric healthcare provider changes the neonate's formula to Similac® Soy Isomil® Formula, a soy protein isolate-based infant formula. What information should the LPN/LVN provide to the mother about the newly prescribed formula?

• A. The new formula is a coconut milk formula used with babies with impaired fat absorption.
• B. Enfamil® Formula is a demineralized whey formula that is needed with diarrhea.
• C. The new formula is a casein protein source that is low in phenylalanine.
• D. Similac® Soy Isomil® Formula is a soy-based formula that contains sucrose.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should inform the mother that Similac® Soy Isomil® Formula is a soy-based formula containing sucrose. This formula is suitable for infants with cow's milk protein allergy or intolerance, which may be the reason for the newborn spitting up large amounts of the previous cow's milk formula.

5. A client in active labor is admitted with preeclampsia. Which assessment finding is most significant in planning this client's care?

• A. Patellar reflex 4+
• B. Blood pressure 158/80
• C. Four-hour urine output 240 ml
• D. Respirations 12/minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Patellar reflex 4+'. Hyperreflexia is a sign of severe preeclampsia and increases the risk of seizures, indicating the need for immediate intervention. Monitoring and addressing this finding are crucial in managing the client's condition and preventing complications.

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