Nursing Elites

1. When can a woman who thinks she may be pregnant use a home pregnancy test to diagnose pregnancy?

• A. A home pregnancy test can be used right after your first missed period.
• B. These tests are most accurate after you have missed your second period.
• C. Home pregnancy tests often give false positives and should not be trusted.
• D. The test can provide accurate information when used right after ovulation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Home pregnancy tests detect hCG, a hormone produced during pregnancy, and are most accurate after the first missed period when hCG levels are higher. Testing too early may result in a false negative. Waiting until after the first missed period increases the reliability of the test results. Choice B is incorrect as waiting until after the second missed period is unnecessary and may delay seeking appropriate healthcare. Choice C is incorrect as home pregnancy tests are generally reliable when used correctly. Choice D is incorrect because ovulation occurs before the period, and testing immediately after ovulation may not provide accurate results.

2. In caring for a 4-year-old boy recently diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD), which characteristic of the disease is most important for the nurse to focus on during the initial teaching?

• A. Lower legs become progressively weaker, causing a waddling, unsteady gait.
• B. Growth and development have been abnormal since birth.
• C. Muscular strength can be regained with physical exercise and therapy.
• D. Respiratory dysfunction and aspiration are prime concerns at this stage of the disease.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In Duchenne muscular dystrophy, a key characteristic is the progressive weakness in the lower legs, leading to a waddling, unsteady gait. The nurse should focus on teaching about this aspect as it helps in understanding the disease's progression and managing the symptoms effectively.

3. A new mother is having trouble breastfeeding her newborn son. He is making frantic rooting motions and will not grasp the nipple. What intervention would be most helpful to this mother?

• A. Ask the mother to stop feeding, comfort the infant, and then assist the mother to help the baby latch on.
• B. Use a nipple shield to help the baby latch on.
• C. Try a different breastfeeding position.
• D. Have another person help the mother with breastfeeding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the best intervention is to ask the mother to stop feeding, comfort the infant, and then assist her in helping the baby latch on. Stopping the feeding and providing comfort can reduce the infant's frustration and create a calmer environment for successful breastfeeding. Choice B, using a nipple shield, may not address the underlying issue causing the baby's difficulty latching. Choice C, trying a different breastfeeding position, can be attempted after the baby is calm and ready to latch. Choice D, having another person help, may not be necessary if the mother can be guided effectively on latching techniques.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to give an enema to a laboring client. Which client requires the most caution when carrying out this procedure?

• A. A gravida 6, para 5 who is 38 years of age and in early labor.
• B. A 37-week primigravida who presents at 100% effacement, 3 cm cervical dilation, and a -1 station.
• C. A gravida 2, para 1 who is at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station admitted for induction of labor due to postdates.
• D. A 40-week primigravida who is at 6 cm cervical dilation and the presenting part is not engaged.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client at 40 weeks of gestation with a 6 cm cervical dilation and a presenting part that is not engaged requires the most caution during an enema procedure. An unengaged presenting part increases the risk of cord prolapse, which can be a serious complication during the procedure. This situation demands careful attention to prevent potential complications and ensure the safety of the client and fetus. Choice A is incorrect as being in early labor does not pose the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice B describes a client at 37 weeks with signs of early labor but does not indicate the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice C involves a client at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station with no mention of an unengaged presenting part, making it a less critical situation compared to an unengaged presentation, as in Choice D.

5. A client at 32-weeks gestation comes to the prenatal clinic with complaints of pedal edema, dyspnea, fatigue, and a moist cough. Which question is most important for the LPN/LVN to ask this client?

• A. Which symptom did you experience first?
• B. Are you consuming large amounts of salty foods?
• C. Have you traveled to a foreign country recently?
• D. Do you have a history of rheumatic fever?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Rheumatic fever can lead to rheumatic heart disease, which may be exacerbated during pregnancy, causing symptoms like pedal edema and dyspnea. Asking about a history of rheumatic fever is crucial in this case to assess the potential impact on the client's current symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are less relevant in this scenario as they do not directly relate to the presenting symptoms and history of rheumatic fever.

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