Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 2 diabetes is admitted with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum glucose of 600 mg/dL
• B. Serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg
• C. Serum sodium of 130 mEq/L
• D. Serum potassium of 5.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg is concerning in a client with HHS because it indicates severe dehydration and hyperosmolarity, which requires immediate intervention. In HHS, the elevated serum osmolarity leads to neurological symptoms and can result in serious complications if not addressed promptly. While a high serum glucose level (choice A) is typical in HHS, the osmolarity is a more direct indicator of dehydration and severity. Serum sodium (choice C) and potassium levels (choice D) are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's condition compared to the severe hyperosmolarity indicated by a high serum osmolarity level.

2. The unit clerk reports to the charge nurse that a healthcare provider has written several prescriptions that are illegible and it appears the healthcare provider used several unapproved abbreviations in the prescriptions. What actions should the charge nurse take?

• A. Call the healthcare provider who wrote the prescription
• B. Attempt to clarify the prescriptions with the pharmacist
• C. Administer the medications as prescribed
• D. Ask another healthcare provider for clarification

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to take is to call the healthcare provider who wrote the illegible prescriptions. It is crucial to clarify illegible prescriptions directly with the provider to ensure patient safety and prevent medication errors. Option B, attempting to clarify with the pharmacist, may lead to misinterpretation and is not the recommended first step. Administering the medications as prescribed without clarity can jeopardize patient safety, making option C incorrect. Asking another healthcare provider for clarification (option D) may not be effective as the responsibility lies with the provider who wrote the prescription.

3. A client with urticaria due to environmental allergies is taking diphenhydramine (Benadryl). Which complaint should the nurse identify as a side effect of this OTC medication?

• A. Nausea and indigestion.
• B. Hypersalivation.
• C. Eyelid and facial twitching.
• D. Increased appetite.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea and indigestion. Diphenhydramine, an antihistamine, commonly causes gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and indigestion. These symptoms are often reported by individuals taking this medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypersalivation, eyelid and facial twitching, and increased appetite are not typically associated with diphenhydramine use.

4. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with hypoglycemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push
• B. Administer 15 grams of oral glucose
• C. Recheck the blood glucose level in 15 minutes
• D. Administer a glucagon injection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering 50% dextrose IV push is the first priority in treating hypoglycemia to rapidly increase blood glucose levels. This choice is correct because in severe cases of hypoglycemia, when a client is admitted and unconscious or unable to swallow, intravenous administration of dextrose is crucial to quickly raise blood glucose levels. Option B, administering 15 grams of oral glucose, would be suitable for conscious clients with mild hypoglycemia who can swallow safely. Option C, rechecking blood glucose levels, should follow after immediate intervention to assess the response. Option D, administering a glucagon injection, is more suitable for cases where dextrose is not readily available or when the client does not respond to dextrose administration.

5. During the infusion of a second unit of packed red blood cells, the client's temperature increases from 99 to 101.6 F. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Stop the transfusion and start a saline infusion.
• B. Administer antipyretics and continue the transfusion.
• C. Monitor the client’s vital signs every 15 minutes.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider and continue the transfusion.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An increase in temperature during a transfusion may indicate a transfusion reaction, which can be serious. Stopping the transfusion and starting a saline infusion is the priority action to prevent further complications and address the potential adverse reaction. Administering antipyretics (choice B) may mask the symptoms of a transfusion reaction, delaying appropriate treatment. While monitoring vital signs (choice C) is important, stopping the transfusion takes precedence to prevent harm. Notifying the healthcare provider (choice D) is essential but should not delay the immediate intervention of stopping the transfusion and starting a saline infusion.

Similar Questions