HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. A client with type 2 diabetes is admitted with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?
- A. Serum glucose of 600 mg/dL
- B. Serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg
- C. Serum sodium of 130 mEq/L
- D. Serum potassium of 5.0 mEq/L
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg is concerning in a client with HHS because it indicates severe dehydration and hyperosmolarity, which requires immediate intervention. In HHS, the elevated serum osmolarity leads to neurological symptoms and can result in serious complications if not addressed promptly. While a high serum glucose level (choice A) is typical in HHS, the osmolarity is a more direct indicator of dehydration and severity. Serum sodium (choice C) and potassium levels (choice D) are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's condition compared to the severe hyperosmolarity indicated by a high serum osmolarity level.
2. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which assessment finding is most concerning to the nurse?
- A. Barrel-shaped chest
- B. Use of accessory muscles
- C. Oxygen saturation of 85%
- D. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 85% is significantly low for a client with COPD and indicates hypoxemia, requiring immediate intervention. In COPD, the body's ability to oxygenate adequately is already compromised, so a saturation of 85% is particularly concerning. A barrel-shaped chest and use of accessory muscles are common findings in COPD due to chronic air trapping and increased work of breathing. While a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute is elevated, a low oxygen saturation is a more critical finding that necessitates prompt attention.
3. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with hepatic encephalopathy. Which laboratory value is most concerning?
- A. Serum ammonia level of 100 mcg/dl
- B. Bilirubin level of 3.0 mg/dl
- C. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds
- D. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum ammonia level of 100 mcg/dl is most concerning in a client with hepatic encephalopathy. Elevated serum ammonia levels indicate significant liver dysfunction and an increased risk of worsening encephalopathy. Bilirubin level and prothrombin time are important in assessing liver function, but in the context of hepatic encephalopathy, elevated ammonia levels take precedence as they directly contribute to neurological symptoms. Serum sodium level, though important, is not the primary concern when managing hepatic encephalopathy.
4. An adult client comes to the clinic and reports his concern over a lump that 'just popped up on my neck about a week ago.' In performing an examination of the lump, the nurse palpates a large, non-tender, hardened left subclavian lymph node. There is no overlying tissue inflammation. What do these findings suggest?
- A. Malignancy
- B. Infection
- C. Benign cyst
- D. Lymphadenitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The findings of a large, non-tender, hardened lymph node, especially in the absence of overlying tissue inflammation, are indicative of malignancy. These characteristics raise suspicion for cancer, prompting the need for further investigation. Choice B, Infection, is incorrect because infection would typically present as a tender and possibly swollen lymph node. Choice C, Benign cyst, is incorrect as cysts are usually soft and movable. Choice D, Lymphadenitis, is incorrect as lymphadenitis usually presents with tender and enlarged lymph nodes in response to an infection.
5. A male client is prescribed clozapine (Clozaril), an antipsychotic medication, for the management of schizophrenia. Which client history should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before administering the first dose of this medication?
- A. History of depression
- B. History of cardiac arrhythmia
- C. History of seizures
- D. History of diabetes mellitus
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of cardiac arrhythmia. Clozapine can lead to severe cardiovascular problems, making it crucial to report any history of cardiac arrhythmia to the healthcare provider before administering the medication. Choices A, C, and D are less concerning in this context as they are not directly associated with potential serious complications related to clozapine use.
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