HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. A client with type 2 diabetes is admitted with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?
- A. Serum glucose of 600 mg/dL
- B. Serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg
- C. Serum sodium of 130 mEq/L
- D. Serum potassium of 5.0 mEq/L
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg is concerning in a client with HHS because it indicates severe dehydration and hyperosmolarity, which requires immediate intervention. In HHS, the elevated serum osmolarity leads to neurological symptoms and can result in serious complications if not addressed promptly. While a high serum glucose level (choice A) is typical in HHS, the osmolarity is a more direct indicator of dehydration and severity. Serum sodium (choice C) and potassium levels (choice D) are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's condition compared to the severe hyperosmolarity indicated by a high serum osmolarity level.
2. A client who developed syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) associated with small carcinoma of the lung is preparing for discharge. When teaching the client about self-management with demeclocycline (Declomycin), the nurse should instruct the client to report which condition to the healthcare provider?
- A. Insomnia
- B. Muscle cramping
- C. Increased appetite
- D. Anxiety
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Muscle cramping. SIADH causes dilutional hyponatremia due to increased ADH release. Demeclocycline is used to block the action of ADH. Muscle cramping can indicate electrolyte imbalances related to hyponatremia, which should be reported to the healthcare provider. Insomnia, increased appetite, and anxiety are not typically associated with the side effects or complications of demeclocycline or SIADH.
3. A client with hypertension receives a prescription for enalapril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEI). Which instruction should the nurse include in the medication teaching plan?
- A. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods
- B. Report increased bruising or bleeding
- C. Stop medication if a cough develops
- D. Limit intake of leafy green vegetables
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the medication teaching plan for a client receiving enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, is to 'Report increased bruising or bleeding.' ACE inhibitors can cause thrombocytopenia, which can lead to an increased risk of bruising and bleeding. Monitoring and reporting these symptoms promptly are essential to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increasing potassium-rich foods, stopping medication if a cough develops, and limiting intake of leafy green vegetables are not directly related to the common side effects or actions of ACE inhibitors.
4. A mother brings her 6-year-old child, who has just stepped on a rusty nail, to the pediatrician's office. Upon inspection, the nurse notes that the nail went through the shoe and pierced the bottom of the child's foot. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Cleanse the foot with soap and water and apply an antibiotic ointment
- B. Provide teaching about the need for a tetanus booster within the next 72 hours.
- C. Have the mother check the child's temperature every 4 hours for the next 24 hours
- D. Transfer the child to the emergency department to receive a gamma globulin injection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to implement is to cleanse the foot with soap and water and apply an antibiotic ointment to prevent infection. In cases of puncture wounds like stepping on a rusty nail, the immediate concern is to reduce the risk of infection. Providing teaching about the need for a tetanus booster within the next 72 hours is important as well, but it should come after the wound is cleansed. Checking the child's temperature and transferring to the emergency department for a gamma globulin injection are not the immediate priorities in this scenario.
5. One day after abdominal surgery, an obese client complains of pain and heaviness in the right calf. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Observe for unilateral swelling
- B. Administer pain medication
- C. Elevate the leg and apply a warm compress
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to observe for unilateral swelling. Unilateral swelling could indicate a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a serious complication that requires immediate assessment. Administering pain medication or applying warm compress may not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Notifying the healthcare provider should be done after assessing and identifying the issue of unilateral swelling.
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