HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. A client with type 2 diabetes is admitted with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?
- A. Serum glucose of 600 mg/dL
- B. Serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg
- C. Serum sodium of 130 mEq/L
- D. Serum potassium of 5.0 mEq/L
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg is concerning in a client with HHS because it indicates severe dehydration and hyperosmolarity, which requires immediate intervention. In HHS, the elevated serum osmolarity leads to neurological symptoms and can result in serious complications if not addressed promptly. While a high serum glucose level (choice A) is typical in HHS, the osmolarity is a more direct indicator of dehydration and severity. Serum sodium (choice C) and potassium levels (choice D) are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's condition compared to the severe hyperosmolarity indicated by a high serum osmolarity level.
2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which clinical finding is most concerning to the nurse?
- A. Kussmaul respirations
- B. Blood glucose level of 300 mg/dl
- C. Serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L
- D. Positive urine ketones
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L. A low serum potassium level in a client with DKA is concerning due to the risk of cardiac arrhythmias. Kussmaul respirations (choice A) are a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis in DKA. A blood glucose level of 300 mg/dl (choice B) is elevated but expected in DKA. Positive urine ketones (choice D) are a classic finding in DKA and not as concerning as low serum potassium.
3. The nurse is teaching a male client with multiple sclerosis how to empty his bladder using the Crede Method. When performing a return demonstration, the client applies pressure to the umbilical areas of his abdomen. What instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Stroke the inner thigh below the perineum to initiate urinary flow
- B. Contract, hold, and then relax the pubococcygeal muscle
- C. Pour warm water over the external sphincter at the distal glans
- D. Apply downward manual pressure at the suprapubic regions
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client is applying pressure in the wrong region (umbilical area) and should be instructed to apply pressure at the suprapubic area. Applying downward manual pressure at the suprapubic region helps in emptying the bladder effectively by assisting in pushing the urine out through the urethra. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address the specific issue of applying pressure to help empty the bladder using the Crede Method.
4. A client with a history of chronic alcoholism is admitted with confusion, ataxia, and diplopia. Which nursing intervention is a priority for this client?
- A. Monitor for signs of alcohol withdrawal.
- B. Administer thiamine as prescribed.
- C. Provide a quiet environment to reduce confusion.
- D. Initiate fall precautions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer thiamine as prescribed. This intervention is a priority for clients with chronic alcoholism to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy, a serious complication of thiamine deficiency. Monitoring for signs of alcohol withdrawal (choice A) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Providing a quiet environment (choice C) may be beneficial but does not address the immediate need to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy. Initiating fall precautions (choice D) is also important but not the priority compared to administering thiamine to prevent a life-threatening condition.
5. A client with a history of angina pectoris is prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin. Which client statement indicates that further teaching is needed?
- A. ‘I should take the nitroglycerin with a full glass of water.’
- B. ‘I should take the nitroglycerin as soon as I feel chest pain.’
- C. ‘I can take up to three doses of nitroglycerin if needed.’
- D. ‘I should call 911 if my chest pain does not improve after the first dose.’
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Sublingual nitroglycerin should not be taken with water, as it needs to dissolve under the tongue to be effective. Option B is correct as the client should take nitroglycerin as soon as they feel chest pain. Option C is correct as up to three doses can be taken if needed. Option D is correct as the client should seek emergency help if chest pain does not improve after the first dose.
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