HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. A client with type 2 diabetes is admitted with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?
- A. Serum glucose of 600 mg/dL
- B. Serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg
- C. Serum sodium of 130 mEq/L
- D. Serum potassium of 5.0 mEq/L
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg is concerning in a client with HHS because it indicates severe dehydration and hyperosmolarity, which requires immediate intervention. In HHS, the elevated serum osmolarity leads to neurological symptoms and can result in serious complications if not addressed promptly. While a high serum glucose level (choice A) is typical in HHS, the osmolarity is a more direct indicator of dehydration and severity. Serum sodium (choice C) and potassium levels (choice D) are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's condition compared to the severe hyperosmolarity indicated by a high serum osmolarity level.
2. What is the first action the nurse should implement for a client admitted with acute pancreatitis?
- A. Administer intravenous fluids as prescribed
- B. Administer pain medication as prescribed
- C. Place the client on NPO status
- D. Assess the client's abdomen for distention
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Placing the client on NPO status is the priority action for a client with acute pancreatitis. This step is crucial to rest the pancreas, prevent pancreatic stimulation, and decrease enzyme production. By withholding oral intake, the digestive system is given a chance to rest and recover. Administering intravenous fluids may be necessary but should come after placing the client on NPO status. Pain medication can be administered once the client is stabilized. Assessing the client's abdomen for distention is important but is not the initial priority in managing acute pancreatitis.
3. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Shortness of breath
- B. Jugular venous distention
- C. Crackles in the lungs
- D. Elevated liver enzymes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with left-sided heart failure, the presence of crackles in the lungs is the most critical finding that should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. Crackles indicate pulmonary congestion, which requires prompt intervention to prevent respiratory compromise. Shortness of breath, though a common symptom in heart failure, is a result of pulmonary congestion, making crackles a more direct indicator of the severity of the condition. Jugular venous distention and elevated liver enzymes are important to assess in heart failure but are not as immediately concerning as crackles in the lungs, which directly reflect the impact of heart failure on the respiratory system.
4. A 59-year-old male client comes to the clinic and reports his concern over a lump that 'just popped up on my neck about a week ago.' In performing an examination of the lump, the nurse palpates a large, nontender, hardened left subclavian lymph node. There is no overlying tissue inflammation. What do these findings suggest?
- A. Malignancy
- B. Infection
- C. Benign cyst
- D. Lymphadenitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Malignancy. A large, non-tender, hardened lymph node is a typical sign of malignancy and warrants further investigation. Choice B (Infection) is incorrect because typically in infections, lymph nodes are tender and may show signs of inflammation. Choice C (Benign cyst) is incorrect as a benign cyst would usually present as a soft, mobile lump. Choice D (Lymphadenitis) is incorrect as lymphadenitis usually presents with tender and enlarged lymph nodes due to inflammation.
5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Hemoglobin level
- C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
- D. Serum sodium level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Prothrombin time (A) is used to calculate the INR and monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Hemoglobin level (B) is important but not the primary lab value to monitor when a client is on warfarin. Serum sodium level (D) is not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.
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