Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 2 diabetes is admitted with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum glucose of 600 mg/dL
• B. Serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg
• C. Serum sodium of 130 mEq/L
• D. Serum potassium of 5.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg is concerning in a client with HHS because it indicates severe dehydration and hyperosmolarity, which requires immediate intervention. In HHS, the elevated serum osmolarity leads to neurological symptoms and can result in serious complications if not addressed promptly. While a high serum glucose level (choice A) is typical in HHS, the osmolarity is a more direct indicator of dehydration and severity. Serum sodium (choice C) and potassium levels (choice D) are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's condition compared to the severe hyperosmolarity indicated by a high serum osmolarity level.

2. The healthcare provider explains through an interpreter the risks and benefits of a scheduled surgical procedure to a non-English speaking female client. The client gives verbal consent, and the healthcare provider leaves, instructing the nurse to witness the signature on the consent form. The client and the interpreter then speak together in the foreign language for an additional 2 minutes until the interpreter concludes, 'She says it is OK.' What action should the nurse take next?

• A. Ask for a full explanation from the interpreter of the witnessed discussion.
• B. Have the client sign the consent form.
• C. Document the conversation and witness the consent.
• D. Ask the client directly if she has any questions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to ask for a full explanation from the interpreter of the witnessed discussion. Verbal consent is not sufficient; it is crucial to ensure that the client fully comprehends the risks and benefits of the surgical procedure. By asking the interpreter to provide a detailed explanation of the discussion, the nurse can confirm that the client has given informed consent. Having the client sign the consent form (Choice B) without ensuring complete understanding may lead to potential misunderstandings. Documenting the conversation and witnessing the consent (Choice C) is not enough to guarantee the client's comprehension. Asking the client directly if she has any questions (Choice D) may not be effective if language barriers persist.

3. A client with a history of angina pectoris is prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin. Which client statement indicates that further teaching is needed?

• A. ‘I should take the nitroglycerin with a full glass of water.’
• B. ‘I should take the nitroglycerin as soon as I feel chest pain.’
• C. ‘I can take up to three doses of nitroglycerin if needed.’
• D. ‘I should call 911 if my chest pain does not improve after the first dose.’

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Sublingual nitroglycerin should not be taken with water, as it needs to dissolve under the tongue to be effective. Option B is correct as the client should take nitroglycerin as soon as they feel chest pain. Option C is correct as up to three doses can be taken if needed. Option D is correct as the client should seek emergency help if chest pain does not improve after the first dose.

4. A client with a nasogastric tube in place following gastric surgery reports nausea. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

• A. Irrigate the NG tube with 30 ml of normal saline.
• B. Administer an antiemetic as prescribed.
• C. Assess the NG tube for patency and reposition if necessary.
• D. Provide sips of water and reassess the client's symptoms.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the NG tube for patency and repositioning it if necessary is the most appropriate action to relieve the client's nausea. Nausea in a client with a nasogastric tube can be due to the tube's malposition or blockage. Irrigating the NG tube with normal saline (Choice A) without assessing for patency or repositioning may worsen the situation. Administering an antiemetic (Choice B) can help manage symptoms but does not address the potential issue with the NG tube. Providing sips of water and reassessing symptoms (Choice D) may be contraindicated if there is a problem with the NG tube and could exacerbate the nausea.

5. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Barrel-shaped chest
• B. Use of accessory muscles
• C. Oxygen saturation of 85%
• D. Inspiratory crackles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 85% is significantly low for a client with COPD and requires immediate intervention to prevent hypoxemia. Oxygen saturation below 90% indicates poor oxygenation and poses a risk of tissue hypoxia, making it a critical finding that needs prompt attention. Barrel-shaped chest and inspiratory crackles are commonly seen in clients with COPD and do not necessitate immediate intervention. The use of accessory muscles may indicate increased work of breathing but does not pose the same level of immediate threat as severe hypoxemia.

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