Nursing Elites

1. The client with DM is being taught about the signs of hyperglycemia. Which symptom should the nurse include?

• A. Excessive thirst
• B. Sweating
• C. Shaking
• D. Hunger

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Excessive thirst, also known as polydipsia, is a hallmark symptom of hyperglycemia. When blood glucose levels are high, the body tries to eliminate the excess glucose through urine, leading to increased urination and subsequent thirst. Sweating, shaking, and hunger are more commonly associated with hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Sweating can occur when blood sugar levels drop too low, shaking is a sign of hypoglycemia, and hunger is often a result of low blood sugar levels triggering the body to seek fuel.

2. A client with type 1 DM is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which symptom should the nurse expect to observe?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Polyuria
• C. Flushed skin
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia. In hypoglycemia, the body releases adrenaline in response to low blood glucose levels, leading to symptoms such as tachycardia (rapid heart rate). Choice B, polyuria, refers to excessive urination and is not a typical symptom of hypoglycemia. Choice C, flushed skin, is not a common symptom of hypoglycemia; instead, pale skin and sweating are more characteristic. Choice D, dry mouth, is not directly associated with hypoglycemia; rather, it can be a symptom of hyperglycemia or dehydration.

3. A client with hyperaldosteronism is at risk for which of the following electrolyte imbalances?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In hyperaldosteronism, there is an excessive secretion of aldosterone, a hormone that promotes potassium excretion in the kidneys. This leads to low potassium levels in the blood, known as hypokalemia. Therefore, the correct answer is hypokalemia (Choice C). Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite condition, where there is high potassium levels in the blood and is not typically associated with hyperaldosteronism. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is a low sodium level, which is not directly related to aldosterone function. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is an elevated calcium level and is not typically a direct result of hyperaldosteronism.

4. What is the approximate duration of action for intermediate-acting insulins like NPH?

• A. 6-8 hours.
• B. 10-14 hours.
• C. 16-20 hours.
• D. 24-28 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: '16-20 hours.' Intermediate-acting insulins like NPH typically have a duration of action of approximately 16-20 hours. This prolonged action makes them effective in managing blood glucose levels over an extended period. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical duration of action for intermediate-acting insulins. Choice A (6-8 hours) is too short, choice B (10-14 hours) is also shorter than the typical duration, and choice D (24-28 hours) is too long for intermediate-acting insulins like NPH.

5. A client with diabetes insipidus is receiving desmopressin therapy. The nurse should monitor for which of the following potential side effects?

• A. Hyponatremia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyponatremia. Desmopressin, a medication used to treat diabetes insipidus, can cause the retention of water without sodium, leading to dilutional hyponatremia. This occurs because desmopressin increases water reabsorption in the kidneys without affecting sodium levels. Hypernatremia (choice B) is unlikely because desmopressin does not cause excessive sodium retention. Hypokalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not typically associated with desmopressin therapy for diabetes insipidus.

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