Nursing Elites

1. The client with DM is being taught about the signs of hyperglycemia. Which symptom should the nurse include?

• A. Excessive thirst
• B. Sweating
• C. Shaking
• D. Hunger

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Excessive thirst, also known as polydipsia, is a hallmark symptom of hyperglycemia. When blood glucose levels are high, the body tries to eliminate the excess glucose through urine, leading to increased urination and subsequent thirst. Sweating, shaking, and hunger are more commonly associated with hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Sweating can occur when blood sugar levels drop too low, shaking is a sign of hypoglycemia, and hunger is often a result of low blood sugar levels triggering the body to seek fuel.

2. A healthcare professional caring for a client who has been receiving intravenous diuretics suspects that the client is experiencing a deficient fluid volume. Which assessment finding would the healthcare professional note in a client with this condition?

• A. Lung congestion
• B. Decreased hematocrit
• C. Increased blood pressure
• D. Decreased central venous pressure (CVP)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Decreased central venous pressure (CVP) is the correct assessment finding in a client with deficient fluid volume. This is because a decrease in CVP indicates reduced blood volume returning to the heart, which is consistent with hypovolemia. Lung congestion (Choice A) would be more indicative of fluid volume excess, not deficiency. Decreased hematocrit (Choice B) may be seen in conditions such as anemia but is not specific to deficient fluid volume. Increased blood pressure (Choice C) is not typically associated with deficient fluid volume; in fact, hypovolemia often leads to decreased blood pressure.

3. A male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a highly elevated glycosylated hemoglobin (Hb) test result. In discussing the result with the client, nurse Sharmaine would be most accurate in stating:

• A. The test needs to be repeated following a 12-hour fast.
• B. It appears you aren't following the prescribed diabetic diet.
• C. It tells us about your sugar control for the last 3 months.
• D. Your insulin regimen needs to be significantly altered.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 3 months. This test is used to assess long-term blood sugar control in individuals with diabetes. Choice A is incorrect because fasting is not required for an HbA1c test. Choice B is judgmental and not supported by the information provided. Choice D is not the most accurate statement to make based on the HbA1c result; adjusting insulin would depend on a more comprehensive assessment of the client's overall diabetes management.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease). Which of the following laboratory findings would the nurse expect?

• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease), there is a decrease in aldosterone levels, leading to sodium loss and potassium retention. This imbalance results in hyperkalemia, making choice B the correct answer. Hypernatremia (choice A) is unlikely due to sodium loss. Hyperglycemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not typically associated with primary adrenal insufficiency.

5. A nurse caring for a client with hypocalcemia would expect to note which of the following changes on the electrocardiogram?

• A. Widened T wave
• B. Prominent U wave
• C. Prolonged QT interval
• D. Shortened ST segment

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In hypocalcemia, a decreased level of calcium can lead to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG due to its role in myocardial repolarization. A widened T wave (Choice A) is typically seen in hyperkalemia. A prominent U wave (Choice B) is associated with hypokalemia. A shortened ST segment (Choice D) is not a typical ECG finding in hypocalcemia.

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