a male client with a tentative diagnosis of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome hhns has a history of type 2 diabetes that is being control
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Leadership and Management HESI

1. A male client with a tentative diagnosis of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) has a history of type 2 diabetes that is being controlled with an oral diabetic agent, tolazamide (Tolinase). Which of the following is the most important laboratory test for confirming this disorder?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Serum osmolarity is the most important laboratory test for confirming hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS). HHNS is characterized by severe hyperglycemia and dehydration without ketoacidosis. Elevated serum osmolarity indicates increased solute concentration in the blood, which is a hallmark of HHNS. Serum potassium level (Choice A) is important in conditions like diabetic ketoacidosis rather than HHNS. Serum sodium level (Choice B) may be affected in HHNS but is not the primary test for confirming the disorder. Arterial blood gas (ABG) values (Choice C) are more useful in assessing acid-base status, which is not the primary concern in HHNS.

2. A client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is at risk for which of the following complications?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyponatremia. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by the excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention in the body. This causes dilutional hyponatremia, where the sodium levels in the blood become abnormally low. Option A, Hypernatremia, is incorrect because SIADH does not cause elevated sodium levels. Option C, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as SIADH does not directly affect potassium levels. Option D, Hypercalcemia, is also incorrect as SIADH does not impact calcium levels.

3. The client has been diagnosed with primary aldosteronism. Which of the following clinical findings would the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Primary aldosteronism involves the overproduction of aldosterone by the adrenal glands. Aldosterone increases potassium excretion, leading to hypokalemia. Therefore, in primary aldosteronism, the nurse would expect to find hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia (choice A), hyponatremia (choice C), or hypercalcemia (choice D).

4. A client with DM is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action when a client with DM is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia is to check the client's blood glucose level. This step is crucial to confirm hypoglycemia before initiating any treatment. Giving the client orange juice (Choice A) is a common intervention for treating hypoglycemia, but it should not be done before confirming the blood glucose level. Administering insulin (Choice B) is not appropriate for hypoglycemia as it would further decrease the blood glucose levels. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be important, but the immediate priority is to assess the blood glucose level to guide treatment.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with suspected syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following laboratory findings is most consistent with this condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased serum osmolality. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by the excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. The dilution of sodium results in decreased serum osmolality. Option A is incorrect because SIADH causes hyponatremia, resulting in decreased serum sodium levels. Option B is incorrect because SIADH leads to concentrated urine with increased urine specific gravity. Option D is incorrect as SIADH does not typically affect serum potassium levels.

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