HESI RN
Leadership HESI Quizlet
1. When should a new nurse graduate consider applying for a position as a nurse manager?
- A. When she is comfortable in her current position
- B. When she begins mentoring other new nurses
- C. As soon as a position opens
- D. When she has developed leadership and clinical expertise
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A new nurse graduate should consider applying for a nurse manager position when they have developed both leadership and clinical expertise. This ensures that they are well-prepared for the responsibilities of the role. Choice A is incorrect because being comfortable in the current position does not necessarily equate to having the required skills for a nurse manager role. Choice B is incorrect as mentoring other new nurses, while valuable, may not directly align with the skills needed for a managerial position. Choice C is incorrect as applying for a nurse manager position solely because a position is available does not guarantee readiness for the role.
2. The client with type 1 DM asks why it is necessary to rotate injection sites when managing insulin therapy. The nurse's best response is:
- A. It helps prevent skin irritation.
- B. It helps prevent scar tissue buildup.
- C. It ensures more consistent insulin absorption.
- D. It makes the injections less painful.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Rotating injection sites is necessary to ensure more consistent insulin absorption. This practice helps maintain stable blood glucose levels by preventing the formation of lipohypertrophy (fatty lumps under the skin) at injection sites. Choices A and B are incorrect as the primary purpose of rotating injection sites is not focused on preventing skin irritation or scar tissue buildup. While rotating injection sites may contribute to reducing pain over time, the primary benefit is the consistency in insulin absorption to support glycemic control, making choice D less relevant.
3. During the physical examination, Nurse Noah expects to assess which sign in a female client with a serum calcium level of 7.2 mg/dl?
- A. Trousseau's sign
- B. Homans' sign
- C. Hegar's sign
- D. Goodell's sign
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Trousseau's sign is a clinical indicator of hypocalcemia, characterized by carpal spasm when a blood pressure cuff is inflated above systolic pressure and maintained for a few minutes. This occurs due to increased neuromuscular irritability associated with low serum calcium levels. Homans' sign is used to assess for deep vein thrombosis and involves calf pain upon dorsiflexion of the foot. Hegar's sign is a softening of the lower uterine segment seen in pregnancy, while Goodell's sign is softening of the cervix also seen in pregnancy. Therefore, in this scenario, the correct assessment related to hypocalcemia would be Trousseau's sign.
4. The client with DM is being taught about the signs of hyperglycemia. Which symptom should the nurse include?
- A. Excessive thirst
- B. Sweating
- C. Shaking
- D. Hunger
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Excessive thirst, also known as polydipsia, is a hallmark symptom of hyperglycemia. When blood glucose levels are high, the body tries to eliminate the excess glucose through urine, leading to increased urination and subsequent thirst. Sweating, shaking, and hunger are more commonly associated with hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Sweating can occur when blood sugar levels drop too low, shaking is a sign of hypoglycemia, and hunger is often a result of low blood sugar levels triggering the body to seek fuel.
5. A healthcare provider caring for a client with severe malnutrition reviews the laboratory results and notes a magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL. Which electrocardiographic change would the healthcare provider expect to note based on the magnesium level?
- A. Prominent U waves
- B. Prolonged PR interval
- C. Depressed ST segment
- D. Widened QRS complexes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL can cause a depressed ST segment on the ECG. Magnesium deficiency commonly leads to ST segment depression on an electrocardiogram. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia, prolonged PR interval is seen in conditions like first-degree heart block, and widened QRS complexes are typically related to conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.
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