Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has had a stroke. Which intervention should the nurse recommend to prevent aspiration during meals?

• A. Encourage the client to take large bites of food
• B. Advise the client to eat quickly to prevent fatigue
• C. Offer the client thin liquids with meals
• D. Instruct the client to sit upright while eating

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Instructing the client to sit upright while eating is crucial to prevent aspiration in stroke clients. This position helps in safe swallowing and reduces the risk of food or liquid entering the airway. Encouraging the client to take large bites of food (Choice A) can increase the risk of choking and aspiration. Advising the client to eat quickly (Choice B) may lead to fatigue and compromise safe swallowing. Offering thin liquids (Choice C) can also increase the risk of aspiration in stroke clients, as thicker liquids are usually recommended to prevent aspiration.

2. A client is scheduled for surgery in the morning and is NPO. Which statement indicates that the client understands the reason for being NPO?

• A. Being NPO helps reduce the risk of nausea.
• B. I should not eat or drink anything to prevent complications during surgery.
• C. NPO reduces the risk of aspiration during surgery.
• D. NPO helps ensure the stomach is empty during surgery.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'NPO reduces the risk of aspiration during surgery.' When a client is NPO (nothing by mouth) before surgery, it is to prevent aspiration, which can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia. Choice A is incorrect because being NPO is more about preventing aspiration than nausea. Choice B is a general statement without specifying the reason for being NPO. Choice D is partially correct but does not emphasize the crucial aspect of preventing aspiration, which is the primary reason for fasting before surgery.

3. A client with Cushing's syndrome presents with excessive bruising and elevated blood glucose. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the client's blood glucose level.
• B. Administer insulin per sliding scale protocol.
• C. Administer intravenous fluids.
• D. Check the client's skin for signs of bruising.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Excessive bruising and elevated blood glucose are common symptoms of Cushing's syndrome. The nurse should first check the client's blood glucose level to assess and address the hyperglycemia promptly. Administering insulin or IV fluids would be premature without knowing the current blood glucose level. Checking the skin for bruising, although important for overall assessment, does not address the immediate concern of elevated blood glucose.

4. A young adult was hit in the temporal area with a baseball bat and is being monitored for signs of a closed head injury. Which finding indicates a developing epidural hematoma?

• A. Nausea and vomiting.
• B. Altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after injury.
• C. Severe headache and blurred vision.
• D. Loss of motor function on the affected side.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after a temporal injury is a classic sign of epidural hematoma, which is a neurosurgical emergency. This finding occurs due to the rapid expansion of the hematoma, causing compression of the brain. Nausea and vomiting (choice A) are more commonly associated with other types of head injuries, such as concussion. Severe headache and blurred vision (choice C) are symptoms seen in various head injuries but are not specific to epidural hematomas. Loss of motor function on the affected side (choice D) is more indicative of a different type of head injury, such as a contusion or intracerebral hematoma.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin injections. What laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Hemoglobin
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin. Erythropoietin stimulates the production of red blood cells, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. Monitoring hemoglobin is crucial to assess the effectiveness of the treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Serum potassium levels are often monitored in chronic kidney disease, but it is not the primary parameter to evaluate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. White blood cell count and platelet count are not directly influenced by erythropoietin injections for chronic kidney disease.

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