Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection to a thin, elderly client. What is the most appropriate site for the injection?

• A. Dorsal aspect of the upper arm.
• B. Upper outer thigh.
• C. Lower abdomen.
• D. Lateral aspect of the upper arm.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the upper outer thigh. In thin, elderly clients, the upper outer thigh is a recommended site for subcutaneous injections due to the presence of adequate subcutaneous tissue and muscle mass. The dorsal aspect of the upper arm may not provide enough subcutaneous tissue for proper absorption of the medication. The lower abdomen is not ideal for thin individuals as it may lead to injection into muscle rather than subcutaneous tissue. The lateral aspect of the upper arm is also not a commonly recommended site for subcutaneous injections.

2. A client with Parkinson's disease is prescribed levodopa/carbidopa. The nurse instructs the client to take the medication with meals. Which rationale should the nurse provide for taking the medication with food?

• A. It enhances the effectiveness of the medication
• B. It helps to improve absorption
• C. It prevents orthostatic hypotension
• D. It reduces gastrointestinal upset

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'It reduces gastrointestinal upset.' Levodopa/carbidopa can cause nausea and other gastrointestinal side effects. Taking the medication with food can help reduce these side effects and improve the client's comfort. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because taking the medication with food does not primarily enhance effectiveness, improve absorption, or prevent orthostatic hypotension. The main reason for advising to take the medication with meals is to minimize gastrointestinal upset.

3. Following a lumbar puncture, a client complains of worsening headache when sitting up. What complication is the client likely experiencing?

• A. A migraine headache
• B. An infection from the puncture site
• C. Low blood sugar
• D. Spinal fluid leakage (post-lumbar puncture headache)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client is likely experiencing spinal fluid leakage (post-lumbar puncture headache), a common complication of a lumbar puncture. This leakage results in a reduction of cerebrospinal fluid volume around the brain and spinal cord, leading to a headache that worsens when in an upright position due to reduced buoyancy. A migraine headache (Choice A) is not typically associated with a lumbar puncture. Infection from the puncture site (Choice B) would present with localized signs of inflammation, such as redness, swelling, and warmth, rather than worsening headache. Low blood sugar (Choice C) is not a common complication of lumbar puncture and would not typically manifest as a worsening headache when sitting up.

4. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Encourage the client to ignore the voices and stay focused on reality.
• B. Acknowledge the client's feelings and ask what the voices are saying.
• C. Redirect the conversation to help distract the client from the hallucinations.
• D. Offer reassurance that the voices cannot harm the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for a client with schizophrenia experiencing auditory hallucinations is to acknowledge the client's feelings and ask what the voices are saying. This approach helps build rapport with the client, demonstrates empathy, and allows the nurse to assess the content of the hallucinations. Understanding the content is crucial to determine whether the client is at risk of harm. Encouraging the client to ignore the voices (Choice A) may invalidate their experience. Redirecting the conversation (Choice C) may not address the underlying issue of the hallucinations. Offering reassurance (Choice D) without understanding the content may overlook potential risks.

5. A client is receiving a blood transfusion and develops chills and back pain. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Stop the transfusion and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Monitor the client's vital signs every 15 minutes.
• C. Administer a PRN dose of diphenhydramine.
• D. Prepare to administer an antihistamine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse is to stop the transfusion and notify the healthcare provider. These symptoms suggest a transfusion reaction, and stopping the transfusion is crucial to prevent further complications. Notifying the healthcare provider ensures timely intervention and appropriate management for the client's condition. Monitoring vital signs, administering diphenhydramine, or preparing to administer an antihistamine can be considered after stopping the transfusion and seeking guidance from the healthcare provider. However, the immediate priority is to halt the transfusion and inform the provider.

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