HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. The nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection to a thin, elderly client. What is the most appropriate site for the injection?
- A. Dorsal aspect of the upper arm.
- B. Upper outer thigh.
- C. Lower abdomen.
- D. Lateral aspect of the upper arm.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is the upper outer thigh. In thin, elderly clients, the upper outer thigh is a recommended site for subcutaneous injections due to the presence of adequate subcutaneous tissue and muscle mass. The dorsal aspect of the upper arm may not provide enough subcutaneous tissue for proper absorption of the medication. The lower abdomen is not ideal for thin individuals as it may lead to injection into muscle rather than subcutaneous tissue. The lateral aspect of the upper arm is also not a commonly recommended site for subcutaneous injections.
2. A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) reports nausea and dizziness. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Check the client's blood glucose level.
- B. Check the client's vital signs and blood pressure.
- C. Decrease the infusion rate of TPN.
- D. Administer antiemetic medication as prescribed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) reports symptoms like nausea and dizziness, the first action the nurse should take is to check the client's vital signs and blood pressure. This assessment helps determine the client's overall stability and can provide crucial information to guide further interventions. Checking the blood glucose level (Choice A) may be relevant but is not the priority in this situation. Decreasing the infusion rate of TPN (Choice C) may be necessary but should be based on assessment findings. Administering antiemetic medication (Choice D) should not be the initial action without first assessing the client's vital signs.
3. The nurse is teaching a group of clients about managing diabetes. Which of the following should be emphasized as a goal for all diabetics?
- A. Frequent exercise and weight control
- B. Prevent eye damage
- C. Keep insulin refrigerated at all times
- D. Prevent the development of complications
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Frequent exercise and weight control. These should be emphasized as a goal for all diabetics because they help prevent complications and manage blood sugar levels. Regular physical activity and maintaining a healthy weight are crucial in managing diabetes as they can improve insulin sensitivity, regulate blood sugar levels, and reduce the risk of cardiovascular complications. Choice B, preventing eye damage, is important but is more specific to diabetic retinopathy and not a general goal for all diabetics. Choice C, keeping insulin refrigerated, is essential for insulin storage but not a primary goal for all diabetics. Choice D, preventing the development of complications, is too broad and does not provide a specific actionable goal for all diabetics.
4. A client receiving chemotherapy for cancer treatment is experiencing nausea and vomiting. What is the nurse's best intervention to manage these symptoms?
- A. Offer frequent, small meals
- B. Administer antiemetics before meals
- C. Encourage the client to eat a high-fat diet
- D. Provide the client with cold, carbonated beverages
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering antiemetics before meals is the best intervention to manage nausea and vomiting in clients receiving chemotherapy. This proactive approach helps control symptoms by preventing nausea from occurring, rather than waiting to treat it once symptoms have already started. Offering frequent, small meals (choice A) may worsen symptoms in some cases due to increased stomach activity. Encouraging a high-fat diet (choice C) can be difficult for nauseated clients and may not alleviate symptoms. Providing cold, carbonated beverages (choice D) could exacerbate nausea further due to the temperature and carbonation.
5. When assessing a recently delivered multigravida client, the nurse finds that her vaginal bleeding is more than expected. Which factor in this client's history is related to this finding?
- A. The client delivered a large baby
- B. She is a gravida 6, para 5
- C. The client had a cesarean delivery
- D. The client had a prolonged labor
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A client with a higher gravida and para count is at greater risk for uterine atony, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. The uterus may be less effective at contracting after multiple pregnancies, causing increased vaginal bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because delivering a large baby, having a cesarean delivery, or experiencing prolonged labor do not directly correlate with an increased risk of postpartum hemorrhage in a multigravida client as compared to the gravida and para count.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access