HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone
1. A client with multiple sclerosis is admitted with an acute exacerbation. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Monitor the client’s vital signs every hour.
- B. Assess for changes in the client’s muscle strength.
- C. Administer prescribed corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.
- D. Educate the client on managing fatigue and preventing relapses.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Administering prescribed corticosteroids to reduce inflammation is the priority action when a client with multiple sclerosis is admitted with an acute exacerbation. Corticosteroids help manage symptoms during exacerbations and reduce inflammation. Monitoring vital signs and assessing muscle strength are important aspects of care but not the priority during an acute exacerbation. Educating the client on managing fatigue and preventing relapses is essential but can be addressed after the acute exacerbation has been managed.
2. The nurse assesses a client’s wound. What type of wound requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Laceration
- B. Abrasion
- C. Contusion
- D. Ulceration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lacerations, especially deep ones, are prone to bacterial contamination and may require immediate intervention to prevent infection. Abrasions, contusions, and ulcerations are not as likely to lead to immediate serious complications like infections as lacerations.
3. A client is receiving treatment for glaucoma. Which class of medications is commonly used to decrease intraocular pressure?
- A. Anticholinergics
- B. Beta blockers
- C. Alpha blockers
- D. Diuretics
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Diuretics are commonly used to decrease intraocular pressure in clients with glaucoma. They work by reducing the production of aqueous humor in the eye or by increasing its outflow. Anticholinergics (Choice A) are not typically used in the treatment of glaucoma and can even increase intraocular pressure. Beta blockers (Choice B) are also commonly used in glaucoma treatment as they reduce aqueous humor production. Alpha blockers (Choice C) are not the first-line treatment for glaucoma and are not as commonly used as diuretics or beta blockers.
4. A client with pneumonia is receiving antibiotics and oxygen therapy. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Productive cough with yellow sputum.
- B. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
- C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
- D. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which is a critical condition requiring immediate intervention to improve oxygenation. Hypoxemia can lead to tissue hypoxia and further complications. A productive cough with yellow sputum is common in pneumonia but may not require immediate intervention unless it worsens or is associated with other concerning symptoms. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute is within the normal range, indicating adequate ventilation. A heart rate of 90 beats per minute is also within a normal range and may not require immediate intervention unless it is accompanied by other abnormal findings.
5. A client is receiving IV fluid therapy for dehydration. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's fluid status is improving?
- A. Urine output increases to 50 mL/hour
- B. Client reports feeling more thirsty
- C. Blood pressure decreases from 120/80 to 110/70
- D. Heart rate increases from 80 to 100 beats per minute
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An increase in urine output is a positive sign that the client's hydration status is improving. It indicates that the kidneys are functioning well and that fluid therapy is effective. Increased urine output helps to eliminate excess fluid and waste products from the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Feeling more thirsty (choice B) is a sign of dehydration, not improvement. A decrease in blood pressure (choice C) and an increase in heart rate (choice D) are not typically indicative of improving fluid status during IV fluid therapy for dehydration.
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