HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic heart failure who is receiving digoxin therapy. The nurse reviews the client's lab results and notes that the serum potassium level is 3.0 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take next?
- A. Administer a potassium supplement
- B. Notify the healthcare provider
- C. Hold the next dose of digoxin
- D. Increase dietary potassium intake
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In clients receiving digoxin therapy, low potassium levels can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, when the nurse notes a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L, it is crucial to hold the next dose of digoxin. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to ensure appropriate interventions, such as potassium supplementation, can be implemented. Administering a potassium supplement without healthcare provider guidance may lead to rapid potassium level changes and potential adverse effects. Increasing dietary potassium intake alone may not promptly address the low serum potassium level in this acute situation.
2. A client presents to the clinic with a large abscess on the right thigh. The healthcare provider incises and drains the abscess. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client upon discharge?
- A. Avoid showering until the wound is completely closed
- B. Perform daily wound care and dressing changes
- C. Apply heat to the wound for 15 minutes twice a day
- D. Take the prescribed antibiotic until the wound is fully healed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After incision and drainage of an abscess, it is crucial to perform daily wound care and dressing changes to prevent infection and promote healing. Avoiding showering until the wound is completely closed (choice A) may not be practical or necessary. Applying heat to the wound (choice C) can increase the risk of infection and delay healing. While taking the prescribed antibiotic (choice D) is important, wound care and dressing changes are more directly related to promoting healing and preventing complications.
3. During an assessment of a client with congestive heart failure, the nurse is most likely to hear which of the following upon auscultation of the heart?
- A. S3 ventricular gallop
- B. Apical click
- C. Systolic murmur
- D. Split S2
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: An S3 ventricular gallop is an abnormal heart sound commonly heard in clients with congestive heart failure. This sound is indicative of fluid overload or volume expansion in the ventricles, which is often present in heart failure. <br> Incorrect Answers: <br> B: An apical click is not typically associated with congestive heart failure. <br> C: A systolic murmur may be heard in various cardiac conditions but is not specific to congestive heart failure. <br> D: A split S2 refers to a normal heart sound caused by the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves at slightly different times during inspiration, not directly related to congestive heart failure.
4. A client with heart failure is experiencing shortness of breath and swelling in the legs. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer prescribed diuretics
- B. Place the client in a supine position
- C. Restrict fluid intake immediately
- D. Increase the client's sodium intake
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer prescribed diuretics. Diuretics are prescribed to reduce fluid overload in clients with heart failure. By promoting urine output, diuretics help alleviate symptoms like shortness of breath and swelling. While placing the client in a supine position can help with breathing and fluid redistribution, administering diuretics takes precedence as it directly addresses fluid overload. Restricting fluid intake immediately may be necessary in some cases, but the immediate priority is to administer diuretics. Increasing the client's sodium intake would worsen fluid retention and is contraindicated in heart failure.
5. A client with severe dehydration is admitted to the hospital. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?
- A. The client reports feeling less thirsty
- B. Urine output increases to 40 mL/hour
- C. Heart rate decreases from 120 to 110 beats per minute
- D. Skin turgor returns to normal
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An increase in urine output is a reliable indicator that the client's hydration status is improving. This reflects adequate fluid replacement and improved kidney function. Choice A is subjective and may not always indicate improved hydration. Choice C, while a positive sign, may be influenced by other factors such as medications or pain. Choice D, skin turgor returning to normal, is a delayed indicator of hydration status and may take time to improve even after hydration is initiated.
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