Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic heart failure who is receiving digoxin therapy. The nurse reviews the client's lab results and notes that the serum potassium level is 3.0 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take next?

• A. Administer a potassium supplement
• B. Notify the healthcare provider
• C. Hold the next dose of digoxin
• D. Increase dietary potassium intake

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients receiving digoxin therapy, low potassium levels can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, when the nurse notes a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L, it is crucial to hold the next dose of digoxin. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to ensure appropriate interventions, such as potassium supplementation, can be implemented. Administering a potassium supplement without healthcare provider guidance may lead to rapid potassium level changes and potential adverse effects. Increasing dietary potassium intake alone may not promptly address the low serum potassium level in this acute situation.

2. A young male client with an above-knee amputation (AKA) reports that his 'right foot is aching.' What is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement?

• A. Encourage discussion of feelings about the loss of his limb.
• B. Administer a prescription for gabapentin.
• C. Teach the client how to wrap the stump with an elastic bandage.
• D. Offer to assist the client to a quieter location to relax.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because gabapentin is prescribed to treat phantom limb pain, which is common in individuals with amputations. Option A is not the most important intervention at this time since the client is reporting physical pain, not emotional distress. Option C is not appropriate because the client is reporting aching in the foot, not the stump. Option D does not address the underlying issue of phantom limb pain that needs to be managed.

3. Which intervention should be included in the long-term plan of care for a client with COPD?

• A. Administer high-flow oxygen during sleep.
• B. Reduce risk factors for infection.
• C. Limit fluid intake to reduce secretions.
• D. Use diaphragmatic breathing to achieve better exhalation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Use diaphragmatic breathing to achieve better exhalation.' Diaphragmatic breathing is an essential intervention for clients with COPD as it helps improve exhalation and lung function, ultimately reducing symptoms over the long term. Option A is incorrect because high-flow oxygen during sleep is more relevant for clients with conditions like sleep apnea rather than COPD. Option B, 'Reduce risk factors for infection,' is important but not as specific to the long-term management of COPD as diaphragmatic breathing. Option C, 'Limit fluid intake to reduce secretions,' is not a recommended intervention for clients with COPD, as adequate hydration is crucial for maintaining respiratory health.

4. A male client with HIV on saquinavir and other antiretrovirals reports increased hunger and thirst but weight loss. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Use a glucometer to assess capillary glucose.
• B. Explain to the client that an increased dose of medication is needed.
• C. Reassure the client that weight will improve as viral load decreases.
• D. Teach the client how to measure his weight accurately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased thirst and hunger while losing weight may indicate hyperglycemia, a common side effect of saquinavir and other antiretrovirals. Using a glucometer to assess capillary glucose levels is essential to evaluate for hyperglycemia. Choice B is incorrect because increasing the dose of medication without assessing blood glucose levels can be dangerous. Choice C is incorrect because weight loss may not necessarily improve with viral load reduction and doesn't address the immediate concern of hyperglycemia. Choice D is irrelevant to the presenting symptoms and should not be a priority over assessing for hyperglycemia.

5. An adult male is brought to the emergency department following a motorcycle accident, presenting with periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Rebound abdominal tenderness.
• B. Diminished bilateral breath sounds.
• C. Rib pain with deep inspiration.
• D. Nausea with projectile vomiting.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's presentation with periorbital bruising and bloody ear drainage suggests a basilar skull fracture. Projectile vomiting, as described in choice D, is concerning for increased intracranial pressure due to the skull fracture. This finding warrants immediate intervention to prevent further neurological compromise. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority in this situation. Rebound abdominal tenderness (choice A) is indicative of intra-abdominal injury but is not as urgent as managing potential intracranial issues. Diminished breath sounds (choice B) and rib pain with deep inspiration (choice C) may suggest underlying chest injuries, which need attention but are not as immediately life-threatening as increased intracranial pressure.

Similar Questions