HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. The nurse is preparing to administer the first dose of an antibiotic to a patient admitted for a urinary tract infection. Which action is most important prior to administering the antibiotic?
- A. Administering a small test dose to determine if hypersensitivity exists
- B. Having epinephrine available in case of a severe hypersensitivity reaction
- C. Monitoring baseline vital signs, including temperature and blood pressure
- D. Obtaining a specimen for culture and sensitivity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most crucial action before administering an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection is to obtain a specimen for culture and sensitivity. This ensures the accurate identification of the causative organism and helps determine the most effective antibiotic therapy. Administering a test dose to detect hypersensitivity is usually reserved for cases with a strong suspicion of allergy to a needed antibiotic. Keeping epinephrine available is important when there is a significant risk of a severe allergic reaction. Monitoring baseline vital signs is essential during antibiotic therapy but is not the top priority before administering the first dose.
2. During an interview with a client planning elective surgery, the client asks the nurse, 'What is the advantage of having a preferred provider organization insurance plan?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Neither plan allows the selection of healthcare providers or hospitals.
- B. There are fewer healthcare providers to choose from than in an HMO plan.
- C. An individual may select healthcare providers from outside of the PPO network.
- D. An individual can become a member of a PPO without belonging to a group.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The best response for the nurse to provide is option C, as it highlights a key advantage of a preferred provider organization (PPO) insurance plan. By stating that an individual may select healthcare providers from outside of the PPO network, the nurse emphasizes the flexibility and freedom of choice that PPO plans offer. This feature allows individuals to seek care from providers who are not part of the PPO network, albeit at a higher cost. Option A is incorrect because both PPO and HMO plans allow the selection of healthcare providers, although with different restrictions. Option B is incorrect as PPO plans typically offer a larger selection of healthcare providers compared to HMO plans. Option D is incorrect as membership in a PPO usually requires affiliation with a group, such as through employment or membership in an organization.
3. A client has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.51, PCO2 31 mm Hg, PO2 94 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L. Which of the following acid-base disturbances does the nurse recognize in these results?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The ABG results show a pH above the normal range (7.35-7.45) and a decreased PCO2, indicating respiratory alkalosis. In respiratory alkalosis, the pH is increased and the PCO2 is decreased. Metabolic acidosis (choice A) would present with a low pH and low HCO3 levels. Metabolic alkalosis (choice B) would show an increased pH and HCO3 levels. Respiratory acidosis (choice C) would have a low pH and an increased PCO2.
4. The healthcare provider is assessing an older Caucasian male who has a history of peripheral vascular disease. The healthcare provider observes that the man's left great toe is black. The discoloration is probably a result of:
- A. Atrophy.
- B. Contraction.
- C. Gangrene.
- D. Rubor.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Gangrene refers to dead, blackened tissue, often a result of chronic ischemia in clients with peripheral vascular disease. Atrophy (Choice A) is the wasting away or decrease in size of tissue or organ. Contraction (Choice B) refers to the shortening or tightening of a muscle or other body part. Rubor (Choice D) is a red discoloration of the skin, often associated with inflammation or poor circulation, but not typically presenting as blackening like gangrene.
5. When conducting discharge teaching for a client diagnosed with diverticulitis, which diet instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Have small, frequent meals and sit up for at least two hours after meals
- B. Eat a bland diet and avoid spicy foods
- C. Eat a high-fiber diet and increase fluid intake
- D. Eat a soft diet with increased intake of milk and milk products
Correct answer: C
Rationale: For a client diagnosed with diverticulitis, the nurse should instruct them to eat a high-fiber diet and increase fluid intake. This diet helps in managing diverticulitis by promoting bowel regularity and preventing complications such as diverticular inflammation or infection. Choice A of having small, frequent meals and sitting up for at least two hours after meals may be beneficial for gastroesophageal reflux disease but is not specific to diverticulitis. Choice B of eating a bland diet and avoiding spicy foods is not the preferred recommendation for diverticulitis management. Choice D of eating a soft diet with increased intake of milk and milk products may not provide enough fiber to aid in diverticulitis management, and the increased intake of dairy products may worsen symptoms in some individuals.
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