Nursing Elites

1. The client with chronic renal failure asks why a low-protein diet is necessary. Which of the following is the best response by the nurse?

• A. It reduces the workload on your kidneys.
• B. It helps prevent the buildup of waste products.
• C. It helps maintain electrolyte balance in your body.
• D. It helps prevent dehydration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low-protein diet is necessary for clients with chronic renal failure to help prevent the buildup of waste products, such as urea, in the body. Choice A is incorrect as the primary reason for a low-protein diet is to manage waste product accumulation rather than reducing the workload on the kidneys. Choice C is incorrect as electrolyte balance is typically managed through dietary restrictions beyond protein intake. Choice D is incorrect as preventing dehydration is not the primary purpose of a low-protein diet in chronic renal failure.

2. A client has made an appointment for her annual Papanicolaou test (a.k.a. Pap smear). The nurse who schedules the appointment should tell the client that:

• A. The test cannot be performed while the client is menstruating
• B. Vaginal douching is required at least 24 hours before the test
• C. Spicy foods should not be eaten on the day of the test
• D. The test has absolutely no discomfort associated with it

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A Pap smear cannot be performed with accurate results during menstruation. Menstrual blood may interfere with the test results. Choice B is incorrect as vaginal douching should be avoided for at least 24 hours before the test to prevent altering the cervical cells. Choice C is incorrect as there is no restriction on spicy foods before a Pap smear. Choice D is incorrect as some women may experience mild discomfort during the test, although it is generally well-tolerated.

3. A client is placed on a mechanical ventilator following a cerebral hemorrhage, and vecuronium bromide (Norcuron) 0.04 mg/kg q12 hours IV is prescribed. What is the priority nursing diagnosis for this client?

• A. Impaired communication related to paralysis of skeletal muscles.
• B. High risk for infection related to increased intracranial pressure.
• C. Potential for injury related to impaired lung expansion.
• D. Social isolation related to inability to communicate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a client on a mechanical ventilator receiving vecuronium bromide is 'Impaired communication related to paralysis of skeletal muscles.' Vecuronium is a skeletal muscle relaxant that causes diaphragmatic paralysis, leading to the inability of the client to communicate effectively. This is a crucial nursing concern as it impacts the client's ability to express needs and participate in care. Option B 'High risk for infection related to increased intracranial pressure' is not the priority in this scenario as the client's condition is related to the effects of the medication and mechanical ventilation, not directly to increased intracranial pressure. Option C 'Potential for injury related to impaired lung expansion' is important but not the priority over impaired communication. Option D 'Social isolation related to inability to communicate' is not the priority nursing diagnosis in this situation as it focuses more on psychosocial aspects rather than the immediate physiological concern of communication impairment.

4. A patient has a serum potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. The patient’s provider has determined that the patient will need 200 mEq of potassium to replace serum losses. How will the nurse caring for this patient expect to administer the potassium?

• A. As a single-dose 200 mEq oral tablet
• B. As an intravenous bolus over 15 to 20 minutes
• C. In an intravenous solution at a rate of 10 mEq/hour
• D. In an intravenous solution at a rate of 45 mEq/hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a patient with severe hypokalemia with a serum potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L requiring 200 mEq of potassium replacement, the appropriate route of administration would be intravenous. Potassium chloride should be administered slowly to prevent adverse effects; therefore, the correct option is to administer the potassium in an intravenous solution at a rate of 10 mEq/hour. Choices A and B are incorrect because potassium should not be given as a single-dose oral tablet or as an intravenous bolus over a short period of time due to the risk of adverse effects. Choice D is also incorrect as the rate of 45 mEq/hour exceeds the recommended maximum infusion rate for adults with a serum potassium level greater than 2.5 mEq/L, which is 10 mEq/hour.

5. A patient who is being treated for dehydration is receiving 5% dextrose and 0.45% normal saline with 20 mEq/L potassium chloride at a rate of 125 mL/hour. The nurse assuming care for the patient reviews the patient’s serum electrolytes and notes a serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L and a serum potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L. The patient had a urine output of 250 mL during the last 12-hour shift. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Contact the patient’s provider to discuss increasing the potassium chloride to 40 mEq/L.
• B. Continue the intravenous fluids as ordered and reassess the patient frequently.
• C. Notify the provider and discuss increasing the rate of fluids to 200 mL/hour.
• D. Stop the intravenous fluids and notify the provider of the assessment findings.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient’s potassium level is within normal limits, but the decreased urine output indicates the patient should not receive additional IV potassium. Increasing potassium chloride to 40 mEq/L is not needed as the level is normal. Stopping the IV fluids is appropriate due to the decreased urine output, which suggests potential fluid overload. The nurse should notify the provider of the assessment findings for further management. Increasing the rate of fluids to 200 mL/hour is not recommended without addressing the decreased urine output first.

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