HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. The client with chronic renal failure asks why a low-protein diet is necessary. Which of the following is the best response by the nurse?
- A. It reduces the workload on your kidneys.
- B. It helps prevent the buildup of waste products.
- C. It helps maintain electrolyte balance in your body.
- D. It helps prevent dehydration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A low-protein diet is necessary for clients with chronic renal failure to help prevent the buildup of waste products, such as urea, in the body. Choice A is incorrect as the primary reason for a low-protein diet is to manage waste product accumulation rather than reducing the workload on the kidneys. Choice C is incorrect as electrolyte balance is typically managed through dietary restrictions beyond protein intake. Choice D is incorrect as preventing dehydration is not the primary purpose of a low-protein diet in chronic renal failure.
2. The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving furosemide (Lasix) and an aminoglycoside antibiotic. The nurse will be most concerned if the patient reports which symptom?
- A. Dizziness
- B. Dysuria
- C. Nausea
- D. Tinnitus
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tinnitus. When furosemide and an aminoglycoside antibiotic are used together, there is an increased risk of ototoxicity. Tinnitus, a ringing in the ears, is a common early sign of ototoxicity. Dizziness (choice A) is a common side effect of furosemide but not specifically related to this drug interaction. Dysuria (choice B) is painful urination and is not directly associated with this drug combination. Nausea (choice C) is a common side effect of furosemide but is not specifically indicative of ototoxicity caused by the drug interaction.
3. A patient is taking a thiazide diuretic and reports anorexia and fatigue. The nurse suspects which electrolyte imbalance in this patient?
- A. Hypercalcemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Thiazide diuretics lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Anorexia and fatigue are common manifestations of hypokalemia. Hypercalcemia (choice A) and hypocalcemia (choice B) are not directly associated with thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is less likely than hypokalemia to be caused by thiazide diuretics.
4. After educating a client with a history of renal calculi, the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should drink at least 3 liters of fluid every day.
- B. I will eliminate all dairy or sources of calcium from my diet.
- C. Aspirin and aspirin-containing products can lead to stones.
- D. The doctor can give me antibiotics at the first sign of a stone.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To prevent the formation of renal calculi, it is essential to maintain adequate hydration as dehydration can contribute to the precipitation of minerals leading to stone formation. Therefore, the correct statement indicating understanding of the teaching is choice A. Increasing fluid intake helps dilute urine and reduces the risk of stone formation. Eliminating all sources of calcium is not recommended as calcium is essential for various bodily functions and eliminating it can lead to other health issues. Aspirin and aspirin-containing products do not directly cause kidney stones. Antibiotics are not used to prevent or treat renal calculi, as they are not caused by bacterial infections.
5. The patient is taking low-dose erythromycin prophylactically and will start cefaclor for treating an acute infection. The nurse should discuss this with the provider because taking both medications simultaneously can cause which effect?
- A. Decreased effectiveness of cefaclor.
- B. Increased effectiveness of cefaclor.
- C. Decreased effectiveness of erythromycin.
- D. Increased effectiveness of erythromycin.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When erythromycin and cefaclor are taken together, erythromycin can inhibit the metabolism of cefaclor, leading to elevated cefaclor levels and potentially causing adverse effects. This results in a decrease in the effectiveness of cefaclor. Therefore, the nurse should discuss this potential drug interaction with the provider to consider an alternative treatment or adjust the dosages to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the concern lies with the effect on cefaclor when combined with erythromycin, not the effect on erythromycin itself.
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