HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. The client is scheduled to begin continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). Which of the following statements by the client indicates that more teaching is required?
- A. I will need to limit my intake of protein.
- B. I can skip a dialysis session if I feel tired.
- C. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. I can eat whatever I want, as long as I take my medications.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Skipping a dialysis session can lead to serious complications as it disrupts the treatment schedule and can result in the accumulation of waste products and fluid in the body. The client must understand the importance of adhering to the prescribed dialysis regimen to maintain optimal health. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because limiting protein intake, increasing potassium-rich foods, and taking medications do not pose the same risk as skipping dialysis sessions. These aspects are important in the management of peritoneal dialysis but do not outweigh the critical need for regular dialysis sessions to prevent complications.
2. The client with chronic renal failure is on a fluid restriction. Which of the following statements by the client indicates that the teaching has been effective?
- A. I will limit my fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.
- B. I can drink as much fluid as I want as long as I take my medication.
- C. I will skip dialysis sessions if I feel tired.
- D. I will limit my fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because it demonstrates the client's understanding of the need to limit fluid intake to prevent fluid overload, which is crucial in managing chronic renal failure. Adequate fluid restriction is essential to prevent complications such as fluid overload and electrolyte imbalances. Choice B is incorrect as it promotes excessive fluid intake, which can worsen the client's condition by putting additional stress on the kidneys. Choice C is incorrect as skipping dialysis sessions can lead to a buildup of toxins in the body, worsening renal failure and potentially leading to life-threatening complications. Choice D is incorrect because limiting fluid intake to a specific volume may not be appropriate for all clients and can vary depending on individual needs, medical condition, and healthcare provider recommendations.
3. After a urography, a client is instructed by a nurse. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client’s discharge teaching?
- A. Avoid direct contact with your urine for 24 hours until the dye clears.
- B. You may experience dribbling of urine for several weeks post-procedure.
- C. Drink at least 3 liters of fluids today to assist in dye elimination.
- D. Your skin may turn slightly yellow from the dye used in this procedure.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: It is important for the client to increase fluid intake to aid in the rapid elimination of the potentially nephrotoxic dye used in urography. This instruction will help prevent any adverse effects related to the dye. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the dye used in urography is not radioactive, so there is no need to avoid direct contact with urine, urine dribbling is not a common post-procedure occurrence, and the dye should not cause the client's skin to change color.
4. Which of the following is the best indicator of long-term glycemic control in a patient with diabetes?
- A. Fasting blood glucose levels.
- B. Postprandial blood glucose levels.
- C. Hemoglobin A1c.
- D. Random blood glucose levels.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Hemoglobin A1c. Hemoglobin A1c measures the average blood glucose level over the past 2-3 months, providing a reliable indicator of long-term glycemic control. Fasting blood glucose levels (choice A) only offer a snapshot of the current glucose level and can fluctuate throughout the day. Postprandial blood glucose levels (choice B) reflect glucose levels after meals but do not give a comprehensive view of long-term control. Random blood glucose levels (choice D) are taken at any time and lack the consistency needed to assess long-term glycemic control effectively. Therefore, Hemoglobin A1c is the superior choice for monitoring and managing diabetes over an extended period.
5. What action should the nurse take for a female patient experiencing vaginal itching and discharge while taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ) (Bactrim, Septra) for a urinary tract infection?
- A. Ask the patient if she might be pregnant.
- B. Reassure the patient that this is a normal side effect.
- C. Report a possible superinfection to the provider.
- D. Suspect that the patient is having a hematologic reaction.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to report a possible superinfection to the healthcare provider. Vaginal itching and discharge can indicate a superinfection, which is a secondary infection that can occur while taking antibiotics. It is essential to notify the provider so that appropriate treatment can be initiated. Asking about pregnancy is not relevant in this context as vaginal itching and discharge are not typical signs of pregnancy. Simply reassuring the patient that these symptoms are normal side effects is inadequate as they may indicate a more serious issue like a superinfection. Suspecting a hematologic reaction is not warranted based on the symptoms described.
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