HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. The client is scheduled to begin continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). Which of the following statements by the client indicates that more teaching is required?
- A. I will need to limit my intake of protein.
- B. I can skip a dialysis session if I feel tired.
- C. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. I can eat whatever I want, as long as I take my medications.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Skipping a dialysis session can lead to serious complications as it disrupts the treatment schedule and can result in the accumulation of waste products and fluid in the body. The client must understand the importance of adhering to the prescribed dialysis regimen to maintain optimal health. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because limiting protein intake, increasing potassium-rich foods, and taking medications do not pose the same risk as skipping dialysis sessions. These aspects are important in the management of peritoneal dialysis but do not outweigh the critical need for regular dialysis sessions to prevent complications.
2. A nurse is assessing the status of a client with diabetes mellitus. The nurse concludes that the client is exhibiting adequate diabetic control if the serum level of glycosylated hemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) is less than:
- A. 7%
- B. 9%
- C. 10%
- D. 15%
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 7%. Glycosylated hemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) level of 7.0% or less is considered indicative of adequate diabetic control. This level reflects good long-term blood sugar management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because an HbA1C level above 7% indicates poor diabetic control and an increased risk of complications associated with diabetes, such as cardiovascular disease, neuropathy, and retinopathy.
3. A client with Diabetes Insipidus (DI) is being cared for by a nurse. Which data warrants the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Serum sodium of 185 mEq/L (185 mmol/L)
- B. Dry skin with poor skin turgor
- C. Apical rate of 110 beats per minute
- D. Polyuria and excessive thirst
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum sodium level of 185 mEq/L (185 mmol/L) is dangerously high and indicates severe dehydration, requiring immediate intervention to prevent neurological damage. The other options are not as critical as high serum sodium levels, which can lead to serious complications such as seizures, coma, and death if not promptly addressed. Dry skin with poor skin turgor and polyuria with excessive thirst are common findings in clients with Diabetes Insipidus and should be managed but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life. An apical heart rate of 110 beats per minute may indicate tachycardia, which could be related to dehydration but is not as urgent as addressing the severe hypernatremia.
4. A client’s baseline vital signs are temperature 98°F oral, pulse 74 beats/min, respiratory rate 18 breaths/min, and blood pressure 124/76 mm Hg. The client suddenly spikes a fever to 103°F. Which of the following respiratory rates would the nurse anticipate as part of the body’s response to the change in client status?
- A. 12 breaths/min
- B. 16 breaths/min
- C. 18 breaths/min
- D. 22 breaths/min
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client experiences a fever, there is an increase in body temperature, leading to a higher metabolic rate and oxygen demand. As a result, the respiratory rate typically increases to meet the body's increased oxygen needs. Therefore, in response to the fever spike from 98°F to 103°F, the nurse would anticipate a higher respiratory rate. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a decrease in body temperature, not an increase as seen in fever, would lead to a decrease in respiratory rate to conserve energy and oxygen consumption.
5. What types of medications should the healthcare provider expect to administer to a client during an acute respiratory distress episode?
- A. Vasodilators and hormones.
- B. Analgesics and sedatives.
- C. Anticoagulants and expectorants.
- D. Bronchodilators and steroids.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During an acute respiratory distress episode, the priority is to widen air passages, increase air space, and reduce alveolar membrane inflammation. Therefore, the client would likely require bronchodilators to open up the airways and steroids to reduce inflammation. Vasodilators and hormones (Choice A) are not typically indicated in this situation. Analgesics and sedatives (Choice B) may be used for pain management and anxiety but are not primary treatments for respiratory distress. Anticoagulants and expectorants (Choice C) are not the main medications used during an acute respiratory distress episode and may not address the immediate needs of the client.
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