HESI RN
RN Medical/Surgical NGN HESI 2023
1. A nurse performing nasopharyngeal suctioning suddenly notes the presence of bloody secretions. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Continue suctioning to remove the blood
- B. Check the degree of suction being applied
- C. Encourage the client to cough out the bloody secretions
- D. Remove the suction catheter from the client’s nose and begin vigorous suctioning through the mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the degree of suction being applied (Choice B). When bloody secretions are encountered during nasopharyngeal suctioning, it is crucial to assess the situation promptly. Checking the degree of suction being applied is the first step as excessive suction pressure may be causing trauma and bleeding. Adjusting the suction pressure may be necessary to prevent further harm. Continuing suctioning to remove the blood (Choice A) or performing vigorous suctioning through the mouth (Choice D) can lead to increased trauma and worsen bleeding. Encouraging the client to cough out the bloody secretions (Choice C) is not appropriate since the client undergoing suctioning is typically unable to expectorate secretions. Therefore, the priority is to check and adjust the suction settings to ensure safe and effective suctioning.
2. The nurse assumes care for a patient who is currently receiving a dose of intravenous vancomycin (Vancocin) infusing at 20 mg/min. The nurse notes red blotches on the patient’s face, neck, and chest and assesses a blood pressure of 80/55 mm Hg. Which action will the nurse take?
- A. Request an order for IV epinephrine to treat anaphylactic shock.
- B. Slow the infusion to 10 mg/min and observe the patient closely.
- C. Stop the infusion and obtain an order for a BUN and serum creatinine.
- D. Suspect Stevens-Johnson syndrome and notify the provider immediately.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When vancomycin is infused too rapidly, “red man” syndrome may occur; the rate should be 10 mg/min to prevent this. This is a toxic reaction, not an allergic one, so epinephrine is not indicated. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is characterized by a rash and fever. Red man syndrome is not related to renal function.
3. A client who had a C-5 spinal cord injury 2 years ago is admitted to the emergency department with the diagnosis of autonomic dysreflexia secondary to a full bladder. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect this client to exhibit?
- A. Complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath
- B. Hypotension and venous pooling in the extremities
- C. Profuse diaphoresis and severe, pounding headache
- D. Pain and burning sensation upon urination and hematuria
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a life-threatening condition commonly seen in clients with spinal cord injuries above the T6 level. It is characterized by a sudden onset of excessively high blood pressure due to a noxious stimulus below the level of injury, often a distended bladder. The exaggerated sympathetic response leads to vasoconstriction, resulting in symptoms such as profuse diaphoresis (sweating) and a severe, pounding headache. These symptoms are the body's attempt to lower blood pressure. Complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath (Choice A) are not typical findings in autonomic dysreflexia. Hypotension and venous pooling (Choice B) are opposite manifestations of autonomic dysreflexia, which is characterized by hypertension. Pain and burning sensation upon urination and hematuria (Choice D) are indicative of a urinary tract infection and not specific to autonomic dysreflexia.
4. After delegating care to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) for a client who is prescribed habit training to manage incontinence, a nurse evaluates the UAP’s understanding. Which action indicates the UAP needs additional teaching?
- A. Toileting the client after breakfast
- B. Changing the client’s incontinence brief when wet
- C. Encouraging the client to drink fluids
- D. Recording the client’s incontinence episodes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action that indicates the UAP needs additional teaching is choice B, 'Changing the client’s incontinence brief when wet.' Habit training is a technique used to manage incontinence, and it is undermined by the use of absorbent incontinence briefs or pads. The nurse should re-educate the UAP on the technique of habit training, which involves scheduled toileting and promoting bladder control. Choices A, C, and D are appropriate actions that support the client’s care: toileting the client after meals, encouraging fluid intake, and documenting incontinence episodes are all important aspects of managing incontinence and monitoring the client's condition.
5. A 57-year-old male client is scheduled to have a stress-thallium test the following morning and is NPO after midnight. At 0130, he is agitated because he cannot eat and is demanding food. Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this client?
- A. I'm sorry sir, you have a prescription for nothing by mouth from midnight tonight.
- B. I will let you have one cracker, but that is all you can have for the rest of tonight.
- C. What did the healthcare provider tell you about the test you are having tomorrow?
- D. The test you are having tomorrow requires that you have nothing by mouth tonight.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Being direct and explaining to the client that the test requires him to be NPO, is the most therapeutic statement because the nurse is responding to the client's question and providing him the reason why.
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