a nurse performing nasopharyngeal suctioning and suddenly notes the presence of bloody secretions the nurse would first
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN Medical/Surgical NGN HESI 2023

1. A nurse performing nasopharyngeal suctioning suddenly notes the presence of bloody secretions. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the degree of suction being applied (Choice B). When bloody secretions are encountered during nasopharyngeal suctioning, it is crucial to assess the situation promptly. Checking the degree of suction being applied is the first step as excessive suction pressure may be causing trauma and bleeding. Adjusting the suction pressure may be necessary to prevent further harm. Continuing suctioning to remove the blood (Choice A) or performing vigorous suctioning through the mouth (Choice D) can lead to increased trauma and worsen bleeding. Encouraging the client to cough out the bloody secretions (Choice C) is not appropriate since the client undergoing suctioning is typically unable to expectorate secretions. Therefore, the priority is to check and adjust the suction settings to ensure safe and effective suctioning.

2. In a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which of the following interventions is most important?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring oxygen saturation is the most important intervention in a patient with COPD because it helps assess the adequacy of oxygenation. In COPD, patients often have compromised lung function, leading to decreased oxygen levels in the blood. Monitoring oxygen saturation allows healthcare providers to promptly identify and address any potential hypoxemia, which is vital in managing COPD exacerbations. While encouraging the patient to stop smoking (Choice A) is critical for long-term management, monitoring oxygen saturation takes precedence in the immediate care of a COPD patient. Administering bronchodilators (Choice B) and providing nutritional support (Choice D) are important aspects of managing COPD but are secondary to monitoring oxygen saturation, which directly impacts the patient's oxygenation status.

3. The client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is taught to take isophane insulin suspension NPH (Humulin N) at 5 PM each day. The client should be instructed that the greatest risk of hypoglycemia will occur at about what time?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 1 AM, while sleeping. Isophane insulin suspension NPH (Humulin N) peaks around 6-8 hours after administration, which increases the risk of hypoglycemia during the night. Choice A, 11 AM, shortly before lunch, is incorrect because the peak effect of NPH insulin occurs much later. Choice B, 1 PM, shortly after lunch, is incorrect as it is too early for the peak effect of NPH insulin. Choice C, 6 PM, shortly after dinner, is also incorrect because the peak risk of hypoglycemia with NPH insulin occurs later in the night.

4. A client who is anxious about an impending surgery is at risk for respiratory alkalosis. For which signs and symptoms of respiratory alkalosis does the nurse assess this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachypnea, dizziness, and paresthesias. When a client is anxious, they may hyperventilate, leading to respiratory alkalosis. Tachypnea (rapid breathing) is a common sign of respiratory alkalosis. Dizziness and paresthesias (tingling or numbness in the extremities) are also typical symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Disorientation and dyspnea (Choice A) are not specific signs of respiratory alkalosis. Drowsiness, headache, and tachypnea (Choice B) may be more indicative of other conditions. Dysrhythmias and decreased respiratory rate and depth (Choice D) are not consistent with the expected signs of respiratory alkalosis.

5. The nurse assesses a client who is newly diagnosed with hyperthyroidism and observes that the client's eyeballs are protuberant, causing a wide-eyed appearance and eye discomfort. Based on this finding, which action should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In hyperthyroidism, eye discomfort due to protuberant eyeballs (exophthalmos) can be alleviated by using artificial tear drops. These drops help prevent complications associated with dry eyes and promote comfort. Assessing for signs of increased intracranial pressure (Choice A) is not directly related to the client's eye discomfort from hyperthyroidism. Administering intravenous levothyroxine (Choice B) is not the appropriate intervention for managing eye discomfort in hyperthyroidism. Reviewing serum electrolyte values (Choice C) is important in hyperthyroidism but is not directly addressing the client's current eye discomfort and protuberant eyeballs.

Similar Questions

The client with diabetes mellitus is being taught how to prevent or delay chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which client statements indicate a lack of understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.)
In a patient with anemia, which of the following is the primary symptom to assess?
The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who is receiving prednisone 5 mg PO daily for a rash due to contact with poison ivy. Which symptoms should the nurse tell the client to report to the healthcare provider?
When a patient starts taking amoxicillin, which foods should the nurse instruct the patient to avoid?
A client with cardiovascular disease is scheduled to receive a daily dose of furosemide (Lasix). Which potassium level would cause the nurse to contact the physician before administering the dose?

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses