Nursing Elites

1. A client with an oversecretion of renin has a health history reviewed by a nurse. Which disorder should the nurse correlate with this assessment finding?

• A. Alzheimer’s disease
• B. Hypertension
• C. Diabetes mellitus
• D. Viral hepatitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Renin is secreted in response to low blood volume, blood pressure, or blood sodium levels. Excessive renin secretion can lead to persistent hypertension. Renin plays no role in Alzheimer's disease, diabetes mellitus, or viral hepatitis. Therefore, the correct correlation with oversecretion of renin is hypertension.

2. A client with a family history of polycystic kidney disease (PKD is being assessed by a nurse. For which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Nocturia
• B. Flank pain
• C. Increased abdominal girth
• D. B & C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients with PKD commonly present with flank pain and increased abdominal girth due to abdominal distention caused by cysts. Bloody urine is also a common symptom due to tissue damage from PKD. Nocturia and dysuria are not typical manifestations of PKD. Constipation is not directly associated with PKD. Therefore, the correct choices are flank pain and increased abdominal girth, making option D the correct answer.

3. How can a nurse best help a client undergoing a bone marrow aspiration and biopsy, along with two upset family members, manage anxiety during the procedure?

• A. Allow the client's family to stay for emotional support.
• B. Accompany the client silently.
• C. Encourage the client to take slow, deep breaths to promote relaxation.
• D. Provide the client an opportunity to verbalize emotions.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to take slow, deep breaths is an effective way for the nurse to help the client manage anxiety during the bone marrow aspiration and biopsy procedure. Slow, deep breathing can promote relaxation and help reduce anxiety levels. Choice A, allowing the client's family to stay for emotional support, may provide comfort but does not address a direct intervention to help manage anxiety. Choice B, staying with the client silently, may not actively help the client address their anxiety. Choice D, allowing the client to express feelings, is important but may not directly address anxiety management during the procedure.

4. A client with kidney stones from secondary hyperoxaluria requires medication. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering?

• A. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium)
• B. Propantheline (Pro-Banthine)
• C. Tolterodine (Detrol LA)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Allopurinol (Zyloprim). Allopurinol is used to treat kidney stones caused by secondary hyperoxaluria. This medication helps prevent the formation of certain types of kidney stones. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) is given to clients with urinary tract infections, not for kidney stones. Propantheline (Pro-Banthine) is an anticholinergic medication used for treating certain gastrointestinal conditions, not kidney stones. Tolterodine (Detrol LA) is also an anticholinergic with smooth muscle relaxant properties, primarily used to treat overactive bladder conditions, not kidney stones.

5. What information will the nurse provide when counseling a patient starting a sulfonamide drug for a urinary tract infection?

• A. Drink several quarts of water daily.
• B. If stomach upset occurs, avoid taking antacids.
• C. Limit sun exposure to avoid skin reactions.
• D. Report any sore throat promptly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drink several quarts of water daily. This advice aims to prevent crystalluria, a potential side effect of sulfonamide drugs. Option B is incorrect because antacids should not be taken with sulfonamides as they can decrease drug absorption. Option C is incorrect as sulfonamides can increase sensitivity to sunlight, not requiring sun exposure limitations but sun protection measures. Option D is incorrect because a sore throat could indicate a more serious adverse effect and should be promptly reported for evaluation.

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