Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer methylergonovine maleate (Methergine) to a postpartum client. Based on what assessment finding should the healthcare provider withhold the drug?

• A. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min
• B. A large amount of lochia rubra
• C. Blood pressure 149/90
• D. Positive Homan’s sign

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A blood pressure of 149/90 is an indication to withhold Methergine due to its potential to further increase blood pressure. Methergine is a medication that can cause vasoconstriction, leading to elevated blood pressure. In this case, administering Methergine could exacerbate the elevated blood pressure, posing a risk to the patient. Therefore, it is crucial to withhold the medication in the presence of hypertension to prevent adverse effects. The other options are not directly related to the administration of Methergine. A respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min is within the normal range. A large amount of lochia rubra may indicate normal postpartum bleeding. A positive Homan’s sign is associated with deep vein thrombosis, which is not a contraindication for administering Methergine.

2. A client at 32 weeks gestation is hospitalized with severe pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and magnesium sulfate is prescribed to control the symptoms. Which assessment finding indicates the therapeutic drug level has been achieved?

• A. 4+ reflexes
• B. Urinary output of 50 ml per hour
• C. A decrease in respiratory rate from 24 to 16
• D. A decreased body temperature

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A decrease in respiratory rate from 24 to 16 indicates that magnesium sulfate is effectively reducing central nervous system irritability, a desired therapeutic effect. This decrease in respiratory rate signifies that the drug has reached a therapeutic level to control symptoms of severe pregnancy-induced hypertension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because 4+ reflexes, urinary output, and body temperature are not direct indicators of achieving a therapeutic level of magnesium sulfate for controlling PIH symptoms.

3. After a full-term vaginal delivery, a postpartum client's white blood cell count is 15,000/mm3. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the differential, as the WBC count can be normal for this client.
• B. Assess the client's temperature, pulse, and respirations every 4 hours.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider, as this finding may indicate infection.
• D. Assess the client's perineal area for signs of a perineal hematoma.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In postpartum clients, a white blood cell count of 15,000/mm3 can be within normal limits due to physiological changes that occur after childbirth. Checking the differential count would provide a more detailed analysis of the specific types of white blood cells present, helping to differentiate between normal postpartum changes and potential infection. This action allows the nurse to gather more information before escalating the situation to the healthcare provider or initiating other assessments. Assessing vital signs and the perineal area are important aspects of postpartum care but may not be the priority in this scenario where the white blood cell count can be influenced by normal physiological changes.

4. The healthcare provider is reviewing the serum laboratory findings for a 5-day-old infant with congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Which laboratory result should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Bilirubin of 1.5 mg/dl.
• B. Glucose of 80 mg/dl.
• C. Potassium of 4.5 mEq/L.
• D. Sodium of 119 mEq/L.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Low sodium levels in congenital adrenal hyperplasia can indicate salt-wasting crisis, which is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate medical attention. Monitoring sodium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as dehydration and shock in these patients.

5. The LPN/LVN assesses a client admitted to the labor and delivery unit and obtains the following data: dark red vaginal bleeding, uterus slightly tense between contractions, BP 110/68, FHR 110 beats/minute, cervix 1 cm dilated and uneffaced. Based on these assessment findings, what intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Insert an internal fetal monitor.
• B. Assess for cervical changes q1h.
• C. Monitor bleeding from IV sites.
• D. Perform Leopold's maneuvers.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring for bleeding from IV sites is the priority intervention in this situation. The dark red vaginal bleeding, uterine tension, and other assessment findings suggest a potential placental abruption. Monitoring bleeding from IV sites can help detect coagulopathy, which may be associated with placental abruption. Options A, B, and D are not the most appropriate interventions in this scenario. Inserting an internal fetal monitor, assessing for cervical changes, and performing Leopold's maneuvers are not the priority actions when dark red vaginal bleeding and uterine tension are present, indicating a potential emergency situation.

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