Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes terbutaline (Brethine) for a client in preterm labor. Before initiating this prescription, it is most important for the LPN/LVN to assess the client for which condition?

• A. Gestational diabetes.
• B. Elevated blood pressure.
• C. Urinary tract infection.
• D. Swelling in lower extremities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gestational diabetes. Terbutaline (Brethine) is known to cause hyperglycemia, so it is crucial to assess for gestational diabetes before administering it. Assessing for elevated blood pressure (choice B), urinary tract infection (choice C), or swelling in lower extremities (choice D) is not directly related to the potential side effect of terbutaline in causing hyperglycemia.

2. A two-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine the pulse deficit
• B. Administer the scheduled dose
• C. Calculate the safe dose range
• D. Review the serum digoxin level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer the scheduled dose of digoxin. A heart rate of 128 bpm in a two-year-old child with heart failure falls within the safe range for digoxin administration. It indicates that the child's heart rate is not excessively low, which could be a concern for administering digoxin. Therefore, proceeding with the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario. Determining the pulse deficit (Choice A) is not necessary in this situation as the heart rate is already obtained. Calculating the safe dose range (Choice C) is not required as the heart rate is within the safe range. Reviewing the serum digoxin level (Choice D) is not needed at this point since the heart rate indicates that administering the next dose is appropriate.

3. A 5-year-old child is admitted to the pediatric unit with fever and pain secondary to a sickle cell crisis. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Obtain a culture of any sputum or wound drainage
• B. Initiate normal saline IV at 50 ml/hr
• C. Administer a loading dose of penicillin IM
• D. Administer the initial dose of folic acid PO

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a child with a sickle cell crisis, the priority intervention is to initiate normal saline IV at 50 ml/hr to manage dehydration and help alleviate pain. This intervention helps improve hydration status and supports the circulation of sickled red blood cells, reducing the risk of vaso-occlusive episodes and associated pain. Obtaining a culture of any sputum or wound drainage (Choice A) may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Administering a loading dose of penicillin IM (Choice C) is important but not the first intervention. Administering the initial dose of folic acid PO (Choice D) is beneficial but does not address the immediate need for hydration in a sickle cell crisis.

4. When should the LPN/LVN encourage the laboring client to begin pushing?

• A. When there is only an anterior or posterior lip of the cervix left.
• B. When the client describes the need to have a bowel movement.
• C. When the cervix is completely dilated.
• D. When the cervix is completely effaced.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should encourage the laboring client to begin pushing when the cervix is completely dilated to 10 centimeters. Pushing before full dilation can lead to cervical injury and ineffective labor progress. By waiting for complete dilation, the client can push effectively, aiding in the descent of the baby through the birth canal. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because pushing before complete dilation can be harmful and may not effectively help in the descent of the baby. The presence of an anterior or posterior lip of the cervix, the urge to have a bowel movement, or complete effacement of the cervix are not indicators for the initiation of pushing during labor.

5. A client with no prenatal care arrives at the labor unit screaming, 'The baby is coming!' The nurse performs a vaginal examination that reveals the cervix is 3 centimeters dilated and 75% effaced. What additional information is most important for the LPN/LVN to obtain?

• A. Gravidity and parity.
• B. Time and amount of last oral intake.
• C. Date of last normal menstrual period.
• D. Frequency and intensity of contractions.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Obtaining the date of the last normal menstrual period is crucial in estimating the gestational age of the fetus. This information helps in determining the progression of labor and the management of delivery. It also assists healthcare providers in assessing the overall health of the mother and the fetus. Choices A, B, and D are important in labor assessment, but in this scenario, the most crucial information needed is the date of the last normal menstrual period to estimate the gestational age.

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