the nurse is caring for a 5 year old child with reyes syndrome which goal of treatment most clearly relates to caring for this child
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Maternity HESI 2023 Quizlet

1. The nurse is caring for a 5-year-old child with Reye’s syndrome. Which goal of treatment most clearly relates to caring for this child?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Reducing cerebral edema and lowering intracranial pressure is the primary goal of treatment for Reye’s syndrome.

2. A child who received multiple blood transfusions after correction of a congenital heart defect is demonstrating muscular irritability and oozing blood from the surgical incision. Which serum value is most important for the nurse to obtain before reporting to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Calcium. In this scenario, the child is displaying symptoms of muscular irritability and oozing blood, which are indicative of hypocalcemia. Calcium levels are crucial to monitor after multiple blood transfusions to prevent complications such as hypocalcemia, which can lead to these symptoms. Therefore, obtaining a serum calcium value is essential for the nurse to assess and address the child's condition effectively. CO2 combining power, Sodium, and Chloride levels are not directly associated with the symptoms described and are not the priority in this situation.

3. A client is admitted to the postpartum unit and tells the nurse she had rheumatic fever as a child, which resulted in some 'heart damage'. The nurse knows that this client is at particular risk for developing heart failure during the immediate postpartum period. Based on the client's history, which nursing problem has the highest priority?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fluid volume excess is a priority concern in this client, as heart damage from rheumatic fever can impair the heart's ability to manage increased blood volume postpartum, leading to potential heart failure. Monitoring and managing fluid volume status are crucial to prevent complications in this high-risk client. Choices A, B, and C are not the highest priority in this situation. Nausea and vomiting, risk for infection, and sleep deprivation are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's physiologic stability compared to the risk of heart failure due to fluid volume excess.

4. After a client delivered vaginally 2 days ago, what information should you share with her if she wants to resume using her diaphragm for birth control?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After childbirth, the diaphragm must be refitted to ensure a proper fit and effectiveness. Changes in the body post-delivery can affect the fit of the diaphragm, making it necessary to get refitted. Choice A is incorrect because while the diaphragm can be effective, it is not the most effective form of contraception. Choice C is incorrect because oil-based lubricants like Vaseline can damage latex diaphragms. Choice D is incorrect because the diaphragm should be inserted no more than 2 hours before intercourse, not 2 to 4 hours.

5. At 20 weeks gestation, a client is scheduled for an ultrasound. In preparing the client for the procedure, the nurse should explain that the primary reason for conducting this diagnostic study is to obtain which information?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary reason for an ultrasound at 20 weeks gestation is to assess fetal growth, gestational age, and anatomical development. This evaluation helps ensure the fetus is developing appropriately and can detect any potential issues that may require intervention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because at 20 weeks, the primary focus of the ultrasound is not to determine the sex of the fetus, detect chromosomal abnormalities, or assess the lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio. While these factors may be evaluated in pregnancy, they are not the primary reasons for an ultrasound at 20 weeks gestation.

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