HESI RN
HESI Maternity 55 Questions Quizlet
1. What is the best nursing intervention for a pregnant woman with hyperemesis gravidarum?
- A. Administer prescribed IV solution.
- B. Give oral rehydration solution.
- C. Encourage small, frequent meals.
- D. Offer ginger tea to reduce nausea.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best nursing intervention for a pregnant woman with hyperemesis gravidarum is to administer the prescribed IV solution. Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy that can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Administering IV fluids helps in managing dehydration, replenishing electrolytes, and providing the necessary hydration for both the mother and the fetus. Giving oral rehydration solution (Choice B) may not be sufficient for severe cases of hyperemesis gravidarum where IV fluids are required. Encouraging small, frequent meals (Choice C) may not be effective as the woman may not be able to tolerate oral intake. Offering ginger tea (Choice D) is not the most appropriate intervention for hyperemesis gravidarum, as it may not provide adequate hydration or electrolyte balance needed in severe cases.
2. The RN documents the mental status of a female client who has been hospitalized for several days by court order. The client states, “I don’t need to be here,” and tells the RN that she believes that the TV talks to her. The RN should document these assessment statements in which section of the mental status exam?
- A. Insight and judgment.
- B. Mood and affect.
- C. Remote memory.
- D. Level of concentration.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The client's statement of not needing to be hospitalized and her belief that the TV talks to her indicate impaired insight and judgment. Insight and judgment evaluate the client's awareness of their condition and ability to make sound decisions. Mood and affect assess emotional state, remote memory evaluates recall of past events, and level of concentration assesses attention and focus. In this scenario, the client's lack of awareness of her need for hospitalization and presence of delusions about the TV speaking to her directly relate to insight and judgment, making choice A the correct option.
3. During a home visit, the nurse observes an elderly client with disabilities slip and fall. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. provide the client with 4 ounces of orange juice
- B. call 911 to summon emergency assistance
- C. check the client for lacerations or fractures
- D. assess the client's blood sugar level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first after an elderly client with disabilities slips and falls is to check the client for lacerations or fractures. This is crucial to assess the extent of injuries and provide appropriate medical attention promptly. Option A, providing orange juice, is not a priority in this situation and does not address the potential injuries. While calling 911 (Option B) may be necessary, assessing for immediate injuries takes precedence. Assessing the client's blood sugar level (Option D) is not the immediate priority after a fall unless there is a specific indication or suspicion of hypoglycemia.
4. Menopausal women require a diet rich in calcium to prevent osteoporosis. Which one of the following is a source of calcium?
- A. Spinach
- B. Cabbage
- C. Carrots
- D. Rape
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spinach is a good source of calcium, which is crucial for preventing osteoporosis in menopausal women. Spinach is a leafy green vegetable high in calcium content. While cabbage, carrots, and rape are nutritious, they do not provide as much calcium as spinach does. Therefore, spinach is the correct choice for menopausal women looking to increase their calcium intake.
5. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the RN to implement?
- A. Isolate the client from the other clients.
- B. Administer a PRN sedative.
- C. Avoid recognizing the behavior.
- D. Escort the client to his room.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for the RN to implement in this situation is to avoid recognizing the behavior. By not reinforcing the echolalia through recognition, the behavior is less likely to be perpetuated, and it can reduce annoyance to other clients on the unit. Isolating the client may lead to feelings of rejection and exacerbate the behavior. Administering a PRN sedative should not be the first line of intervention for echolalia, as it does not address the underlying cause. Escorting the client to his room does not actively address the behavior or provide a therapeutic response.