Nursing Elites

1. What is the best nursing intervention for a pregnant woman with hyperemesis gravidarum?

• A. Administer prescribed IV solution.
• B. Give oral rehydration solution.
• C. Encourage small, frequent meals.
• D. Offer ginger tea to reduce nausea.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best nursing intervention for a pregnant woman with hyperemesis gravidarum is to administer the prescribed IV solution. Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy that can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Administering IV fluids helps in managing dehydration, replenishing electrolytes, and providing the necessary hydration for both the mother and the fetus. Giving oral rehydration solution (Choice B) may not be sufficient for severe cases of hyperemesis gravidarum where IV fluids are required. Encouraging small, frequent meals (Choice C) may not be effective as the woman may not be able to tolerate oral intake. Offering ginger tea (Choice D) is not the most appropriate intervention for hyperemesis gravidarum, as it may not provide adequate hydration or electrolyte balance needed in severe cases.

2. During a routine prenatal health assessment for a client in her third trimester, the client reports that she had fluid leakage on her way to the appointment. Which technique should the nurse implement to evaluate the leakage?

• A. Insert a straight urinary catheter to drain the bladder.
• B. Scan the bladder for urinary retention.
• C. Palpate the suprapubic area for fetal head position.
• D. Test the fluid with a nitrazine strip.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Testing the fluid with a nitrazine strip is the appropriate technique to differentiate between amniotic fluid and urine. This test helps in determining if the fluid leakage is amniotic fluid, which is crucial for guiding further management and ensuring appropriate care for the client during the third trimester of pregnancy. Inserting a straight urinary catheter to drain the bladder (Choice A) is unnecessary and invasive in this scenario as the concern is fluid leakage, not urinary retention. Scanning the bladder for urinary retention (Choice B) is also not indicated since the client reported fluid leakage, not retention. Palpating the suprapubic area for fetal head position (Choice C) is unrelated to assessing fluid leakage and not the appropriate technique in this situation.

3. A woman who gave birth 48 hours ago is bottle-feeding her infant. During assessment, the nurse determines that both breasts are swollen, warm, and tender upon palpation. What action should the LPN/LVN take?

• A. Apply cold compresses to both breasts for comfort.
• B. Instruct the client to run warm water on her breasts.
• C. Wear a loose-fitting bra to prevent nipple irritation.
• D. Express small amounts of milk to relieve pressure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After childbirth, engorgement of the breasts can occur, leading to swelling and discomfort. Applying cold compresses helps reduce swelling and provides comfort for engorged breasts. This action can also help with pain relief and promote milk flow regulation. Instructing the client to run warm water on her breasts (Choice B) is incorrect as warm water can increase blood flow and exacerbate swelling. Wearing a loose-fitting bra (Choice C) may provide some comfort, but it does not address the swelling effectively. Expressing small amounts of milk (Choice D) may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue of engorgement.

4. When counseling a couple seeking information about conceiving, the LPN/LVN should know that ovulation usually occurs

• A. two weeks before menstruation.
• B. immediately after menstruation.
• C. immediately before menstruation.
• D. three weeks before menstruation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ovulation typically occurs about 14 days before the start of the next menstrual period. This timing allows for the released egg to travel down the fallopian tube where it may be fertilized by sperm, leading to conception. Understanding the timing of ovulation is crucial for couples trying to conceive to increase their chances of success.

5. An infant with tetralogy of Fallot becomes acutely cyanotic and hyperneic. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Place the infant in a knee-chest position.
• B. Administer morphine sulfate.
• C. Start intravenous fluids.
• D. Provide 100% oxygen by face mask.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a tetralogy of Fallot situation, placing the infant in a knee-chest position is the initial priority to help increase systemic vascular resistance, which reduces the right-to-left shunt and improves oxygenation. This position can assist in optimizing oxygen levels before considering other interventions. Administering morphine sulfate (choice B) is not the first-line treatment for tetralogy of Fallot crisis. Starting intravenous fluids (choice C) may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Providing 100% oxygen by face mask (choice D) may not fully address the underlying issue of decreased systemic vascular resistance that leads to cyanosis in tetralogy of Fallot.

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