Nursing Elites

1. Twenty minutes after a continuous epidural anesthetic is administered, a laboring client's blood pressure drops from 120/80 to 90/60. What action should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider or anesthesiologist immediately.
• B. Continue to assess the blood pressure every 5 minutes.
• C. Place the woman in a lateral position.
• D. Turn off the continuous epidural.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing the woman in a lateral position is the appropriate action to improve venous return and cardiac output, helping to stabilize the blood pressure. This position can alleviate pressure on the inferior vena cava, reducing the risk of hypotension associated with epidural anesthesia. Turning off the continuous epidural would not be the initial action as it may not be necessary and could lead to inadequate pain relief for the client. Notifying the healthcare provider or anesthesiologist immediately is premature and should be done after attempting non-invasive interventions. Continuing to assess the blood pressure every 5 minutes is important, but placing the woman in a lateral position should be the first intervention to address the hypotension.

2. The nurse is conducting postpartum teaching with a mother who is breastfeeding her infant. When discussing birth control which method should the nurse recommend to this client as best for her to use in preventing unwanted pregnancy?

• A. Breastfeed exclusively at least every 3 to 4 hours.
• B. Condoms and contraceptive foam or gel.
• C. Rhythm method (natural family planning).
• D. Combined estrogen-progesterone oral contraceptives.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Condoms and contraceptive foam or gel are safe options for breastfeeding mothers and do not affect milk supply.

3. A client who had her first baby three months ago and is breastfeeding her infant tells the nurse that she is currently using the same diaphragm that she used before becoming pregnant. What information should the nurse provide this client?

• A. Use an alternative form of contraception until a new diaphragm is obtained.
• B. After weaning, the diaphragm should be resized.
• C. Avoid intercourse during ovulation until the diaphragm size is reassessed.
• D. If weight gain during pregnancy was no more than 20 pounds, the diaphragm is safe to use.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should advise the client to use an alternative form of contraception until a new diaphragm that fits correctly post-pregnancy is obtained. It is essential to ensure proper fit for effective contraception, making it crucial to use an alternative method until the diaphragm is resized.

4. An off-duty healthcare professional finds a woman in a supermarket parking lot delivering an infant while her husband is screaming for someone to help his wife. Which intervention has the highest priority?

• A. Use a sterile item to tie off the umbilical cord.
• B. Provide privacy for the woman.
• C. Reassure the husband and try to keep him calm.
• D. Put the newborn to breast.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Putting the newborn to breast is the highest priority intervention in this scenario. It helps stimulate uterine contractions in the mother, which aids in controlling postpartum bleeding. Additionally, placing the newborn to breast promotes bonding between the mother and infant, provides comfort to the baby, and facilitates the initiation of breastfeeding. Ensuring the well-being of both the mother and the newborn is essential in this critical situation.

5. A new mother calls the nurse stating that she wants to start feeding her 6-month-old child something besides breast milk, but is concerned that the infant is too young to start eating solid foods. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Advise the mother to wait at least another month before starting any solid foods.
• B. Instruct the mother to offer a few spoons of 2 or 3 pureed fruits at each meal.
• C. Reassure the mother that the infant is old enough to eat iron-fortified cereal.
• D. Encourage the mother to schedule a developmental assessment of the infant.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: At 6 months, infants are generally ready to start eating iron-fortified cereals as their iron stores begin to deplete. Introducing iron-fortified cereals at this age helps meet the infant's nutritional needs, particularly for iron, which becomes deficient as the infant's iron reserves diminish. It is a safe and appropriate first food to introduce to infants around 6 months of age, along with continued breastfeeding or formula feeding. Choice A is incorrect because waiting another month is not necessary if the infant is 6 months old. Choice B is incorrect as introducing pureed fruits as the first food may not provide the necessary iron that the infant needs at this stage. Choice D is also incorrect as scheduling a developmental assessment is not indicated solely based on the desire to start solid foods; it is more appropriate to reassure the mother about starting iron-fortified cereal.

Similar Questions