twenty minutes after a continuous epidural anesthetic is administered a laboring clients blood pressure drops from 12080 to 9060 what action should th
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Maternity Test Bank

1. Twenty minutes after a continuous epidural anesthetic is administered, a laboring client's blood pressure drops from 120/80 to 90/60. What action should the healthcare provider take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing the woman in a lateral position is the appropriate action to improve venous return and cardiac output, helping to stabilize the blood pressure. This position can alleviate pressure on the inferior vena cava, reducing the risk of hypotension associated with epidural anesthesia. Turning off the continuous epidural would not be the initial action as it may not be necessary and could lead to inadequate pain relief for the client. Notifying the healthcare provider or anesthesiologist immediately is premature and should be done after attempting non-invasive interventions. Continuing to assess the blood pressure every 5 minutes is important, but placing the woman in a lateral position should be the first intervention to address the hypotension.

2. At 35 weeks gestation, a client complains of 'pain whenever the baby moves.' The nurse notes a temperature of 101.2 F (38.4 C) with severe abdominal or uterine tenderness on palpation. What condition do these findings indicate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's symptoms of fever and abdominal tenderness, along with the gestational age, are classic signs of chorioamnionitis, an infection of the amniotic fluid. Chorioamnionitis is a serious condition that requires prompt recognition and treatment to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Round ligament strain (Choice A) typically presents with sharp, stabbing pain on the sides of the abdomen and is not associated with fever or uterine tenderness. Abruptio placentae (Choice C) presents with sudden-onset vaginal bleeding and severe abdominal pain, often with a board-like uterus. Viral infections (Choice D) may present with a variety of symptoms, but the combination of fever, abdominal tenderness, and gestational age in this scenario points more towards chorioamnionitis.

3. The LPN/LVN caring for a laboring client encourages her to void at least q2h, and records each time the client empties her bladder. What is the primary reason for implementing this nursing intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary reason for encouraging the laboring client to void regularly is to prevent an over-distended bladder, which could impede the descent of the fetus, prolong labor, and be at risk for trauma during delivery. Choice A is incorrect because the difficulty in emptying the bladder during delivery is not the main reason for this nursing intervention. Choice C is incorrect as it pertains to obtaining urine specimens for glucose and protein, not the primary reason for encouraging voiding. Choice D is incorrect because although frequent voiding can indeed minimize the need for catheterization, the primary reason is to prevent an over-distended bladder and potential complications.

4. A 6-year-old child is diagnosed with rheumatic fever and demonstrates associated chorea (sudden aimless movements of the arms and legs). Which information should the nurse provide to the parents?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chorea, or sudden aimless movements associated with rheumatic fever, is temporary in nature and will eventually disappear on its own. It is important for the nurse to reassure the parents that these movements are part of the condition and typically resolve over time without the need for permanent lifestyle changes or strict discipline. Providing accurate information and reassurance to the parents can help alleviate concerns and promote understanding of the condition's course. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because muscle tension, permanent lifestyle changes, and consistent discipline are not directly related to the resolution of chorea in rheumatic fever.

5. The nurse is caring for a female client, a primigravida with preeclampsia. Findings include +2 proteinuria, BP 172/112 mmHg, facial and hand swelling, complaints of blurry vision and a severe frontal headache. Which medication should the nurse anticipate for this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario presented, the client is exhibiting signs and symptoms of severe preeclampsia, including hypertension, proteinuria, facial and hand swelling, visual disturbances, and a severe headache. The medication of choice for preventing seizures in preeclampsia is magnesium sulfate. This drug helps to prevent and control seizures in clients with preeclampsia, making it the most appropriate option for this client. Clonidine hydrochloride (Choice A) is an antihypertensive medication used for managing hypertension but is not the first-line treatment for preeclampsia. Carbamazepine (Choice B) is an anticonvulsant used for seizure disorders like epilepsy and is not indicated for preeclampsia. Furosemide (Choice C) is a diuretic used to manage fluid retention but is not the drug of choice for treating preeclampsia.

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