Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) to a client with Guillain-Barre syndrome. Which assessment is most important before initiating the infusion?

• A. Lung sounds and respiratory status.
• B. Skin integrity and color.
• C. Neurological status and level of consciousness.
• D. Cardiac rate and rhythm.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "Cardiac rate and rhythm." Monitoring cardiac rate and rhythm is crucial before initiating IVIG because bradycardia is a common side effect associated with this therapy. Assessing lung sounds and respiratory status (Choice A) is important, but cardiac monitoring takes precedence due to the risk of bradycardia. Skin integrity and color (Choice B) are important assessments, but they are not directly related to potential complications of IVIG infusion. Neurological status and level of consciousness (Choice C) are also vital assessments, but monitoring cardiac function is more pertinent in this scenario.

2. The client is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K.
• B. I will use a soft toothbrush and an electric razor.
• C. I will keep all appointments for blood tests.
• D. I will avoid participating in contact sports.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because participating in contact sports can increase the risk of injury and bleeding in a client receiving warfarin therapy. Warfarin is a blood thinner, and activities with a higher risk of injury should be avoided to prevent bleeding complications. Choices A, B, and C are all correct statements for a client on warfarin therapy. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K helps maintain consistent anticoagulation levels, using a soft toothbrush and an electric razor reduces the risk of bleeding gums and cuts, and keeping appointments for blood tests ensures proper monitoring of the client's international normalized ratio (INR) levels.

3. During a repeat home visit to see an 84-year-old widow, the nurse discovers that the client is unkempt, smells of stale urine, and does not recognize her neighbors or the nurse. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Call the pharmacy to determine what medications she is taking
• B. Seek the family's assistance in taking care of the client
• C. Complete a physical and mental exam on the client
• D. Call the adult protective services to obtain emergency nursing home placement

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should prioritize completing a physical and mental exam on the client. This action is crucial to assess the client's health status comprehensively and identify any underlying issues contributing to her unkempt appearance, odor of stale urine, and confusion. Calling the pharmacy to determine medications (Choice A) may be important but is not the immediate priority. Seeking family assistance (Choice B) can be helpful, but the client's condition requires a thorough assessment first. While adult protective services (Choice D) may be necessary in the future, the immediate action should be to assess the client's physical and mental health status.

4. A client with a history of epilepsy is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
• B. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• C. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
• D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine such as lorazepam (Ativan) to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam acts quickly and effectively in stopping seizures. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is often used as a second-line agent for status epilepticus, and carbamazepine (Tegretol) is not typically indicated for the acute treatment of status epilepticus. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a pain reliever and antipyretic but is not used in the treatment of status epilepticus.

5. The nurse is providing care for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum sodium of 140 mEq/L.
• B. Serum osmolality of 280 mOsm/kg.
• C. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours.
• D. Serum sodium of 130 mEq/L.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The corrected answer is D. A serum sodium level of 130 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which requires immediate intervention in a client with SIADH. Hyponatremia can lead to serious complications such as seizures, coma, and cerebral edema. Choices A, B, and C are not the most critical findings in a client with SIADH. While a serum sodium of 140 mEq/L is within the normal range, a decrease to 130 mEq/L is concerning and requires prompt action to prevent complications.

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