Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) to a client with Guillain-Barre syndrome. Which assessment is most important before initiating the infusion?

• A. Lung sounds and respiratory status.
• B. Skin integrity and color.
• C. Neurological status and level of consciousness.
• D. Cardiac rate and rhythm.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "Cardiac rate and rhythm." Monitoring cardiac rate and rhythm is crucial before initiating IVIG because bradycardia is a common side effect associated with this therapy. Assessing lung sounds and respiratory status (Choice A) is important, but cardiac monitoring takes precedence due to the risk of bradycardia. Skin integrity and color (Choice B) are important assessments, but they are not directly related to potential complications of IVIG infusion. Neurological status and level of consciousness (Choice C) are also vital assessments, but monitoring cardiac function is more pertinent in this scenario.

2. The client with the sexually transmitted disease HPV reports having had prior sexually transmitted infections. Which response should the nurse provide?

• A. Emphasize that using safe sex practices removes the risk of transmission.
• B. Instruct the client of the importance of notifying sexual partners.
• C. Reassure that complications will not occur if infection is treated.
• D. Provide counseling that most contraceptives prevent against infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Instructing the client about the importance of notifying sexual partners is crucial when dealing with sexually transmitted infections like HPV. This helps prevent the spread of the infection to others and promotes responsible sexual behavior. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while using safe sex practices is important, notifying sexual partners is more immediate and directly related to preventing the spread of the infection. Reassuring about complications and discussing contraceptives do not address the immediate need to notify partners.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a new arteriovenous fistula in the left arm for hemodialysis. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. A thrill is palpable on the fistula.
• B. The client's arm is warm and red.
• C. The fistula has a bruit on auscultation.
• D. There is no bruit on auscultation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Warmth and redness in the client's arm suggest infection or thrombosis of the arteriovenous fistula, which requires immediate intervention to prevent complications. A thrill (A) is a normal finding in a functional arteriovenous fistula, indicating good blood flow. A bruit (C) is also a normal finding on auscultation of a functioning arteriovenous fistula, indicating proper blood flow. The absence of a bruit (D) may indicate a non-functioning fistula, which would need further evaluation but does not require immediate intervention as warmth and redness do.

4. An older adult client visits the community health clinic and reports the onset of pain, redness, and swelling of the right eye. Which question is most important for the clinic nurse to ask the client?

• A. Do you have any discharge from the eye?
• B. Have you started any new prescriptions?
• C. Are all of your immunizations current?
• D. How often do you wash your hands?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important question for the nurse to ask the client is whether they have started any new prescriptions. New medications can have side effects that include eye issues, so it is crucial to determine if there is a potential link. Asking about discharge from the eye (Choice A) may be relevant but does not address the possibility of medication side effects. Inquiring about immunizations (Choice C) and handwashing frequency (Choice D) is important for overall health but is less directly related to the eye symptoms described by the client.

5. A school nurse is planning a program to address bullying among students. Which strategy is most likely to be effective?

• A. Implementing a zero-tolerance policy for bullying
• B. Conducting peer mediation sessions
• C. Providing workshops on conflict resolution
• D. Promoting bystander intervention

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Promoting bystander intervention is the most effective strategy as it empowers students to take action and prevent bullying incidents. By encouraging bystanders to intervene when they witness bullying, the behavior is less likely to continue. Zero-tolerance policies may have limited effectiveness as they often focus on punishment rather than prevention. Peer mediation and conflict resolution workshops are valuable but may not directly address the immediate need for bystander intervention in bullying situations.

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