HESI RN
Community Health HESI 2023
1. A client with a head injury is admitted to the hospital. Which finding indicates a need for immediate intervention?
- A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 15.
- B. Pupils are equal and reactive to light.
- C. Client is drowsy but arousable.
- D. Client does not remember the events leading to the injury.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with a head injury, being drowsy but still arousable can be a sign of increased intracranial pressure, which necessitates immediate intervention. This presentation may indicate a deterioration in neurological status, requiring prompt assessment and management to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are not indicative of an immediate need for intervention in this scenario. A Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 15 indicates the highest level of consciousness; pupils being equal and reactive to light suggest intact cranial nerve function, and memory loss about the injury event is common in head injuries and does not necessarily warrant immediate intervention.
2. The healthcare provider is caring for a 6-year-old child diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. Which finding should the healthcare provider report promptly to the healthcare provider?
- A. Dark-colored urine
- B. Mild periorbital edema
- C. Blood pressure of 150/95 mm Hg
- D. Urine output of 250 mL in 24 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Hypertension is a serious complication of glomerulonephritis, as it can lead to further renal damage. A blood pressure reading of 150/95 mm Hg is elevated and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for immediate management to prevent complications. Dark-colored urine can be a common symptom of glomerulonephritis due to blood in the urine but is not as urgent as managing hypertension. Mild periorbital edema can also be seen in glomerulonephritis but is not as concerning as elevated blood pressure. Urine output of 250 mL in 24 hours indicates oliguria, which is a concern, but addressing hypertension takes priority to prevent further renal damage.
3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with a history of hypertension who is currently taking a diuretic. Which assessment finding is most important to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
- B. Blood pressure of 148/90 mmHg
- C. Pulse rate of 62 beats per minute
- D. Blood glucose level of 130 mg/dl
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is low and places the client at risk for cardiac arrhythmias, requiring immediate intervention. Hypokalemia can result from diuretic use and can lead to serious complications such as irregular heart rhythms. Monitoring and correcting potassium levels are crucial in preventing adverse cardiac events. The other options, though important, do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the low potassium level.
4. A client with hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. What teaching should the nurse provide about this medication?
- A. Instruct the client to avoid high-potassium foods.
- B. Monitor the client’s heart rate and report any bradycardia.
- C. Advise the client to rise slowly from a sitting or lying position.
- D. Instruct the client to avoid sudden position changes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to rise slowly from a sitting or lying position. Beta-blockers can cause bradycardia and hypotension, so clients should be advised to rise slowly to prevent dizziness and falls. Monitoring the client's heart rate and blood pressure regularly is essential. Instructing the client to avoid high-potassium foods (Choice A) is not directly related to beta-blockers. While monitoring the client's heart rate (Choice B) is important, advising the client to rise slowly (Choice C) is more directly related to potential side effects of beta-blockers. Instructing the client to avoid sudden position changes (Choice D) is not as specific or essential as advising them to rise slowly to prevent adverse effects.
5. A client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is admitted with chest pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG)
- C. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula
- D. Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) experiencing chest pain, the priority intervention for the nurse to implement first is to apply oxygen via nasal cannula. Oxygenation is crucial to ensure adequate oxygen supply to the tissues and the heart. This intervention takes precedence over administering sublingual nitroglycerin, obtaining an ECG, or initiating continuous cardiac monitoring. While these interventions are important, ensuring adequate oxygenation is the initial priority in the management of a client with chest pain.