Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic renal failure is scheduled for hemodialysis in the morning. Which pre-dialysis medication should the nurse withhold until after the dialysis treatment is completed?

• A. Calcium carbonate (Os-Cal)
• B. Furosemide (Lasix)
• C. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
• D. Multivitamins

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Furosemide (Lasix). Furosemide is a diuretic that promotes fluid loss, and giving it before hemodialysis can lead to excessive fluid loss during the treatment, potentially causing hypovolemia. Withholding furosemide until after the dialysis session helps in preventing this complication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because calcium carbonate, spironolactone, and multivitamins are not typically contraindicated before hemodialysis in clients with chronic renal failure.

2. The nurse is preparing a presentation on sexually transmitted infections (STIs) for a group of high school students. Which strategy is most effective for this age group?

• A. providing detailed statistical data on STI rates
• B. distributing brochures about STI prevention
• C. showing a documentary on the impact of STIs
• D. facilitating a discussion on safe sex practices

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Facilitating a discussion on safe sex practices is the most effective strategy for high school students when educating about sexually transmitted infections (STIs). This approach encourages active participation, allows students to ask questions, share experiences, and engage with the topic in a meaningful way. Providing detailed statistical data may overwhelm the students and not resonate with them effectively. Distributing brochures can be informative but might not promote the same level of interaction and understanding as a discussion. Showing a documentary is a passive method that may not engage the students actively or address their specific questions and concerns.

3. A client is suspected of being poisoned and presents with symmetric, descending flaccid paralysis, blurred vision, double vision, and dry mouth. The nurse should consider these findings consistent with which potential bioterrorism agent?

• A. ricin
• B. botulism toxin
• C. sulfur mustard
• D. yersinia pestis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: botulism toxin. The symptoms described, including symmetric, descending flaccid paralysis, blurred vision, double vision, and dry mouth, are classic manifestations of botulism, which is caused by a toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum. This toxin affects the nervous system, leading to muscle weakness and paralysis. Choice A, ricin, typically presents with gastrointestinal symptoms and organ failure. Choice C, sulfur mustard, causes blistering skin and respiratory issues. Choice D, yersinia pestis, is associated with the plague and presents with fever, chills, weakness, and swollen lymph nodes.

4. A school nurse is developing a health risk screening protocol for use at an elementary school. What information is most important for the nurse to include in this protocol?

• A. annual flu vaccination status
• B. weight and height measurement
• C. total cholesterol level
• D. long bone deformity testing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Weight and height measurements are crucial components of health screenings in children as they help assess growth patterns and identify potential health concerns such as obesity or growth disorders. Monitoring weight and height regularly can aid in early intervention and prevention of health issues. Annual flu vaccination status, total cholesterol level, and long bone deformity testing are not typically primary components of routine health screenings in elementary school children and may not directly contribute to identifying common health risks in this population.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing the laboratory results for a client who is admitted with renal failure and osteodystrophy. Which findings are consistent with this client's clinical picture?

• A. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L and total calcium of 9 mg/dL.
• B. White blood cell count of 15,000/mm3.
• C. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L and total calcium of 6 mg/dL.
• D. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL and phosphorus of 2 mg/dL.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In renal failure and osteodystrophy, there is an alteration in serum electrolyte balance. The correct answer is serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L and total calcium of 6 mg/dL. Renal failure is associated with hyperkalemia (elevated serum potassium) and hypocalcemia (low total calcium levels). Hyperphosphatemia is also commonly seen in renal failure. Choice A is incorrect as it describes normal levels of serum potassium and total calcium. Choice B is unrelated to the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as it does not reflect the typical electrolyte imbalances seen in renal failure and osteodystrophy.

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