Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic renal failure is scheduled for hemodialysis in the morning. Which pre-dialysis medication should the nurse withhold until after the dialysis treatment is completed?

• A. Calcium carbonate (Os-Cal)
• B. Furosemide (Lasix)
• C. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
• D. Multivitamins

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Furosemide (Lasix). Furosemide is a diuretic that promotes fluid loss, and giving it before hemodialysis can lead to excessive fluid loss during the treatment, potentially causing hypovolemia. Withholding furosemide until after the dialysis session helps in preventing this complication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because calcium carbonate, spironolactone, and multivitamins are not typically contraindicated before hemodialysis in clients with chronic renal failure.

2. A client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) has an elevated blood glucose level. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Stop the TPN infusion.
• B. Administer insulin as prescribed.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider.
• D. Check the TPN infusion rate.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for a client receiving TPN with an elevated blood glucose level is to check the TPN infusion rate. Elevated blood glucose levels in clients receiving TPN can be due to incorrect infusion rates leading to increased glucose delivery. By checking the TPN infusion rate, the nurse can verify if the rate is appropriate and make necessary adjustments. Stopping the TPN infusion abruptly could lead to complications from sudden nutrient deprivation. Administering insulin as prescribed may be necessary but should come after ensuring the correct TPN infusion rate. Notifying the healthcare provider is important but addressing the immediate need to check the infusion rate takes priority to manage hyperglycemia effectively.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has returned from surgery. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
• B. Oxygen saturation of 92%.
• C. Temperature of 99°F (37.2°C).
• D. Pain at the surgical site.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 99°F (37.2°C) in a postoperative client requires immediate intervention as it may indicate the presence of infection. Elevated temperature post-surgery can be a sign of surgical site infection or systemic infection, which can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. Monitoring and managing a fever in a postoperative client is crucial to prevent further complications. The other findings, such as a heart rate of 90 beats per minute, oxygen saturation of 92%, and pain at the surgical site, are common postoperative assessments that may not necessarily require immediate intervention unless they are significantly out of normal range or causing severe distress to the client.

4. Following an emergency Cesarean delivery, the nurse encourages the new mother to breastfeed her newborn. The client asks why she should breastfeed now. Which information should the nurse provide?

• A. To bond with the baby.
• B. To help the baby latch on better.
• C. To stimulate contraction of the uterus.
• D. To promote milk production.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'To stimulate contraction of the uterus.' After delivery, breastfeeding helps in stimulating the release of oxytocin, which triggers the contraction of the uterus. This contraction is crucial to prevent uterine hemorrhage and facilitate the involution process. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While breastfeeding can indeed help in bonding with the baby and promoting milk production, in the immediate postpartum period after a Cesarean section, the priority is to ensure uterine contraction to prevent complications.

5. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with severe dyspnea. Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL.
• B. Serum potassium of 3.5 mEq/L.
• C. Serum creatinine of 1.0 mg/dL.
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 20 mg/dL.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL is within the normal range. However, in a client with heart failure and severe dyspnea, fluid retention is a significant concern. An elevated serum creatinine level may indicate impaired kidney function, which can worsen fluid overload. Therefore, immediate intervention is required to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and not indicative of immediate intervention in this scenario.

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