Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with severe abdominal pain. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Epigastric tenderness.
• B. Bowel sounds are hypoactive.
• C. The client reports sudden, severe abdominal pain.
• D. Bowel sounds are hyperactive.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sudden, severe abdominal pain can indicate a perforated ulcer, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Epigastric tenderness (choice A) may be expected in a client with peptic ulcer disease but does not necessarily require immediate intervention. Hypoactive bowel sounds (choice B) are concerning but not as urgent as sudden, severe abdominal pain. Hyperactive bowel sounds (choice D) are more indicative of conditions like gastroenteritis rather than a perforated ulcer, making it a less critical finding compared to sudden, severe abdominal pain.

2. A client with a history of epilepsy is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
• B. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• C. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
• D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine such as lorazepam (Ativan) to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam acts quickly and effectively in stopping seizures. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is often used as a second-line agent for status epilepticus, and carbamazepine (Tegretol) is not typically indicated for the acute treatment of status epilepticus. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a pain reliever and antipyretic but is not used in the treatment of status epilepticus.

3. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intravenous (IV) medication to a client. Which action should the healthcare provider take first?

• A. Verify the client's identity using two identifiers.
• B. Check the client's allergy status.
• C. Prepare the medication for administration.
• D. Administer the medication at the prescribed rate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Checking the client's allergy status is the priority before administering any medication, especially intravenously. This step helps identify any potential allergic reactions and prevents harm to the client. Verifying the client's identity using two identifiers is important but not the first step in medication administration. Preparing the medication for administration and administering the medication at the prescribed rate come after ensuring the client's safety by checking for allergies.

4. In conducting a health assessment for a family with a history of cardiovascular disease, which family member should be prioritized for further evaluation and intervention?

• A. a 45-year-old father who smokes and has high cholesterol
• B. a 17-year-old daughter who is overweight and inactive
• C. a 50-year-old mother with a history of hypertension
• D. a 12-year-old son who has a normal weight and is active

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The 45-year-old father who smokes and has high cholesterol is at a higher risk for cardiovascular disease due to multiple risk factors. Smoking and high cholesterol are significant contributors to the development of cardiovascular issues. Prioritizing his evaluation and intervention is crucial to address these modifiable risk factors. The other family members, though they may have risk factors as well, do not present with the same level of immediate risk based on the information provided.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing the laboratory results for a client who is admitted with renal failure and osteodystrophy. Which findings are consistent with this client's clinical picture?

• A. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L and total calcium of 9 mg/dL.
• B. White blood cell count of 15,000/mm3.
• C. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L and total calcium of 6 mg/dL.
• D. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL and phosphorus of 2 mg/dL.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In renal failure and osteodystrophy, there is an alteration in serum electrolyte balance. The correct answer is serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L and total calcium of 6 mg/dL. Renal failure is associated with hyperkalemia (elevated serum potassium) and hypocalcemia (low total calcium levels). Hyperphosphatemia is also commonly seen in renal failure. Choice A is incorrect as it describes normal levels of serum potassium and total calcium. Choice B is unrelated to the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as it does not reflect the typical electrolyte imbalances seen in renal failure and osteodystrophy.

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