Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with severe abdominal pain. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Epigastric tenderness.
• B. Bowel sounds are hypoactive.
• C. The client reports sudden, severe abdominal pain.
• D. Bowel sounds are hyperactive.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sudden, severe abdominal pain can indicate a perforated ulcer, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Epigastric tenderness (choice A) may be expected in a client with peptic ulcer disease but does not necessarily require immediate intervention. Hypoactive bowel sounds (choice B) are concerning but not as urgent as sudden, severe abdominal pain. Hyperactive bowel sounds (choice D) are more indicative of conditions like gastroenteritis rather than a perforated ulcer, making it a less critical finding compared to sudden, severe abdominal pain.

2. A 6-year-old child is alert but quiet when brought to the emergency center with periorbital ecchymosis and ecchymosis behind the ears. The nurse suspects potential child abuse and continues to assess the child for additional manifestations of a basilar skull fracture. What assessment finding would be consistent with the basilar skull fracture?

• A. Blurred vision.
• B. Shoulder pain.
• C. Abdominal pain.
• D. Rhinorrhea or otorrhea with halo sign.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Rhinorrhea or otorrhea with halo sign. Raccoon eyes (periorbital ecchymosis) and Battle's sign (ecchymosis behind the ear) are signs of a basilar skull fracture, indicating the need to assess for possible meningeal tears that manifest as a halo sign with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage from the ears or nose. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because blurred vision, shoulder pain, and abdominal pain are not typically associated with a basilar skull fracture.

3. A public health nurse is assessing a community's readiness for a new smoking cessation program. Which factor is most important to evaluate?

• A. the community's smoking rates
• B. the availability of smoking cessation resources
• C. the community's attitude towards smoking
• D. the local healthcare providers' support for the program

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most critical factor to evaluate when assessing a community's readiness for a smoking cessation program is the community's attitude towards smoking. Understanding the community's perceptions, beliefs, and behaviors related to smoking is crucial as it helps determine the level of receptiveness and potential success of the program. Assessing smoking rates (Choice A) could provide valuable epidemiological data but may not reflect the community's readiness for change. While the availability of smoking cessation resources (Choice B) is important, without considering the community's attitude, the program's effectiveness may be limited. Local healthcare providers' support (Choice D) is valuable but secondary to the community's attitude, which directly influences the program's acceptance and impact.

4. A nurse is developing a community health education program focused on preventing childhood obesity. Which intervention should be prioritized?

• A. Creating a school-based exercise program
• B. Distributing educational pamphlets on healthy eating
• C. Organizing a community health fair
• D. Partnering with local restaurants to offer healthy meal options

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Creating a school-based exercise program. This intervention directly addresses the need to increase physical activity among children, a crucial aspect in preventing childhood obesity. While distributing educational pamphlets on healthy eating (choice B) can be beneficial, promoting physical activity through a structured program is more effective in combating obesity. Organizing a community health fair (choice C) may raise awareness but may not lead to sustained behavior change like a structured exercise program. Partnering with local restaurants to offer healthy meal options (choice D) addresses nutrition but does not directly impact physical activity levels, which are essential in obesity prevention.

5. The client with the sexually transmitted disease HPV reports having had prior sexually transmitted infections. Which response should the nurse provide?

• A. Emphasize that using safe sex practices removes the risk of transmission.
• B. Instruct the client of the importance of notifying sexual partners.
• C. Reassure that complications will not occur if infection is treated.
• D. Provide counseling that most contraceptives prevent against infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Instructing the client about the importance of notifying sexual partners is crucial when dealing with sexually transmitted infections like HPV. This helps prevent the spread of the infection to others and promotes responsible sexual behavior. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while using safe sex practices is important, notifying sexual partners is more immediate and directly related to preventing the spread of the infection. Reassuring about complications and discussing contraceptives do not address the immediate need to notify partners.

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